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11 answers

Of course. Her marriage to Joseph was arranged (per the custom of the day) and she resented him. Getting preggers from God would surely bring Joseph much shame and embarrassment.

2007-05-24 04:59:43 · answer #1 · answered by Geisha Christ 2 · 0 1

Mary was a "willing vessel" for god. Mmmhhm, OK.

If god made Adam of clay, why would he need to bother with Mary at all? Oh yeah, he had to comply with the prophecy that the Messiah was born from a virgin. Funny how Jesus fit into that prophecy so neatly.

2007-05-24 11:57:00 · answer #2 · answered by Peter D 7 · 0 1

God chose Mary because he knew her heart. He knew Mary would accept it.

2007-05-24 11:54:29 · answer #3 · answered by rico3151 6 · 1 2

Just a good old-fashioned rape.

But, bible-god mass-murdered an entire planet with a flood, so rape of one person doesn't really compare to the rest.

2007-05-24 11:54:29 · answer #4 · answered by Phyllis 4 · 1 2

according to the bible he did. She was told by an angel and she accepted it so yes that would count as consent.

2007-05-24 11:53:58 · answer #5 · answered by MoonWater 3 · 3 1

Mary was probably following God before that so He didn't need her permission. He just needed a willing vessel to use and she probably had already told Him she would be a vessel He could use for whatever His purpose was.

2007-05-24 11:53:34 · answer #6 · answered by lisaandpathailey 4 · 0 4

If not you can get a good christian lawyer to prove it was implied consent.

2007-05-24 12:00:05 · answer #7 · answered by Grendel's Father 6 · 0 1

May it be done to me as you have said........
Luke 1:38
Looks like permission to me.

2007-05-24 12:01:07 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Of course! One of the most awsome events of all time was that she said "YES!"

2007-05-24 11:54:42 · answer #9 · answered by The_good_guy 3 · 2 2

"Be it done unto me according to Thy word" sounds like it to me.

2007-05-24 11:54:01 · answer #10 · answered by Debra M. Wishing Peace To All 7 · 4 1

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