Why I can’t believe in the royal we, idea to Genesis 1:26 and 3:22,
If Jehovah talked with the royal we or us, etc, why did He only do it only 4-5 times.
Why didn’t He or doesn’t He continue to do to so through out the bible.
Why didn’t He use the royal we at Gen. 1:29, 30 only 3 verses later, or Gen. 2:18, Gen. 3:11, 15
and through out the rest of the bible? Why at Isa. 6:8, does Jehovah say “Whom shall I send”?
Job 38:4-7 shows that the angels were existing at the creation of man, so Jehovah wasn’t alone and had many spirit creatures to talk to.
Instead, which sounds more real and truthful, that Jehovah was talking to someone who is His Master Worker, His Firstborn Son, His Faithful Witness, who is His image, His exact representation, OR He was talking to Himself. (Prov. 8:30; Heb. 1:3; Col 1:15)
Bible scholar Donald E. Gowan said “There is no support in the O[ld] T[estament] for most of the proposed explanations: the royal ‘we,’ the deliberative ‘we,’ the plural of fullness, or an indication of a plurality of persons in the Godhead.
Why does the word Elohim according to Strong’s Cyclopaedia, when it applies to Jehovah means Supreme God, not Gods? Even when this word is applied to Moses (Ex. 4:16 & 7:1) it doesn’t mean that there are 3 Moses, it doesn’t even mean there are 2 Moses.
(Side point when Jesus said if you see me you see the Father, it is because he is the image of God, the exact representation of his Father. When you see an image in a mirror you are seeing a representation, not the actual person. Col 1:15)
(Side point, According to my college dictionary, begotten means “to be born”, to be born means “brought into life or being” when was Jesus brought into life, when he came to life as a baby? No, as Jehovah’s Firstborn of creation Col. 1:15; Rev 3:14)
2007-05-25 05:00:08
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answer #1
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answered by TeeM 7
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