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2 questions , but only one answer I gess.

2007-05-22 23:14:34 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

5 answers

I've recently wondered the same thing. Check out this question, as it may complement yours.

http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AlN5lCeaGxLffaQbhTjVKi7ty6IX?qid=20070520220523AAE76Zo

If the purpose of the fruit was simply to move Adam and Eve to an existence more independent from God, then isn't it just a plot device? They needed something to move the story along.

It seems a rather arbitrary selection as God does not tell them WHY it is forbidden. A&E were probably a bit confused (I imagine them as somewhat goofy, dim-witted people). Personally, I'd be a little resentful if my father said "Just do it because I said so!"

2007-05-22 23:22:57 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Only two contradictions of the New Testament have been mentioned, but others will be referenced when the Trinity, Divinity of Jesus Christ, Divine Sonship of Jesus, Original Sin and Atonement are reviewed.
How could the "inspired words" of God get the genealogy of Jesus incorrect (See Matthew 1:6-16 where it states 26 forefathers up to Prophet David, and Luke 3:23-31 says 41 in number). Or for that matter, give a genealogy to Jesus who had NO father? See II Kings 19:1-37, now read Isaiah 37:1-38. Why is it that the words of these verse are identical? Yet they have been attributed to two different authors, one unknown and the other is Isaiah, who are centuries apart; and yet, the Christians have claimed these books to be inspired by God.
I looked up the word Easter in the Nelson Bible dictionary and learned that the word "Easter" (as mentioned in Acts 12:4) is a mistranslation of "pascha," the ordinary Greek word for "Passover." As, you know Passover is a Jewish celebration not a Christian holiday. I think human hands, all to human, had played havoc with the Bible.
From the brief points mentioned above, and the fact that Biblical scholars themselves have recognized the human nature and human composition of the Bible (Curt Kuhl, The Old Testament: Its Origin and Composition, PP 47, 51, 52), there should exist in the Christian’s mind some acceptance to the fact that maybe every word of the Bible is not God’s word.
As a side note to this subject, let me mention that some Christians believe that the Bible was dictated to Prophet Muhammad (SAW) by a Christian monk, and that is why some of the biblical accounts are in the Quran. After some research, I found that this could not have happened because there were no Arabic Bible in existence in the 6th century of the Christian era when Muhammad (SAW) lived and preached. Therefore, no Arab, not even Prophet Muhammad (SAW) who was absolutely unlettered and unlearned, would have had the opportunity to examine the written text of the Bible in his own language.

2007-05-23 06:19:29 · answer #2 · answered by Punter 2 · 1 2

Yea! If it wasn't for those apples we would be still eating bananas up in the trees I guess.

Or did Adam and Eve eat all the bananas first then ate the apples.

Hang on I'll ask the snake out in cyberspace there mate and I'll get back to you sometime in the future.

2007-05-23 06:25:18 · answer #3 · answered by Drop short and duck 7 · 0 0

Well, myths are just stories to explain how the world (or an aspect of it) came to be the way it is. And this is just another example.

2007-05-23 06:35:10 · answer #4 · answered by gimmenamenow 7 · 0 0

the fruit is not an apple. go read your bible.

2007-05-23 06:17:59 · answer #5 · answered by Kisses 4 · 0 0

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