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"Let the women learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression." (I Timothy 2:11-14)
Another case where the Bible makes it quite clear that women live for man and must submit to them.
"Man enjoys the great advantage of having a god endorse the code he writes; and since man exercises a sovereign authority over women it is especially fortunate that this authority has been vested in him by the Supreme Being. For the Jews and Christians among others, man is master by divine right; the fear of God will therefore repress any impulse towards revolt in the downtrodden female." (Read also I Cor. 11:3-12, I Cor. 14:34-36, I Peter 3:1-7, Ephesians 5:22-24, Col. 3:18-19.

2007-05-22 23:14:21 · 10 answers · asked by Punter 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

10 answers

because men wanted to rule, but they knew that women ruled, so they put that in there, ask any woman and she will tell u that women rule!!

2007-05-22 23:18:41 · answer #1 · answered by Dawn C 5 · 0 0

The whole lot is in mistranslation. For createdness' purpose not all men are males and not all women are female, not everyone is gendered in a mock of biological sexes. Humans are above animals, remember.

2007-05-23 06:24:53 · answer #2 · answered by jinjalina 2 · 0 0

because god of bible could not give birth to a child.

that means god was a failure the woman appeared on earth

so he want to cover up that deficiency. so those words appeared in bible. and those stupid lazy guys were also looking for a way to delegate thier duties, so they found it handy reason.

2007-05-23 08:32:28 · answer #3 · answered by Raja Krsnan 3 · 0 0

Punter, I'd really like to hear your reasons for attacking the Bible, you're deviating from Muslim teachings if you're muslim.. How Much do you know about Quran? Shant you learn more about your book before attacking the others?

Know something, you're of no difference of "Deepsky" and the like who used to attack Muslims.

2007-05-24 03:40:22 · answer #4 · answered by Lawrence of Arabia 6 · 1 0

Why don't you confront and question the overwhelming suppression that women in Muslim countries face before you concern yourself with biblical moaning and groaning?

2007-05-23 06:19:00 · answer #5 · answered by LeilaK 2 · 2 0

Really, I never thought of it that way. I suggest you read more on the book of Ruth it will help you think otherwise.

2007-05-23 06:20:23 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

How do you treat your women any different? Do your women get to moan and groan , after they get their vigians mutaled? Honor killed? Married at 6years old?

2007-05-23 06:17:33 · answer #7 · answered by allahdevil1 3 · 0 1

I don't see how you read sexual frustration and social degradation,humiliation and domination for women into these texts.

2007-05-23 06:19:01 · answer #8 · answered by James O 7 · 0 0

I think you will find that she stops herself.

2007-05-23 06:18:42 · answer #9 · answered by Afi 7 · 0 1

No 'O'...I'm really astonished here.....

2007-05-23 06:16:23 · answer #10 · answered by Shauna O 3 · 1 0

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