This could explain the "virgin birth" completely without the need for sexual intercourse or miracles from God. Thoughts from all sides please....after you have looked up the definition of parthenogenesis and asexual reproduction.
Thank you
2007-05-22 14:07:20 · 15 answers · asked by Anchor Cranker 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Dylan H - could that mean that Jesus was a women? as most women I have met claim.
The Di Vinnci Code (Ok it's Book of Fiction & Hollywood got their mits on the film) puts forward a case for the Holy Grail being the womb of a women.....I am just curious to see how people think about this from a spiritual view point.
It could be science question or it could be religious question just depends on your point of view.
My personal opinion is that it could have a major impacted on peoples belief systems and explain a very major aspect of the Christian Religion.
2007-05-22 14:26:27 · update #1
This is a really good question.
Jesus was fully human (Mary)and fully divine (Holy Spirit-God).
It says the 'Holy Spirit 'overshadowed' Mary.
It may be just that, a miracle outside of nature to bring this about.
We are talking faith and belief here and not science, but at the same time both could compliment the other. After all there are more things in life that are ever dreamt in our philosophy.
2007-05-22 20:16:06 · answer #1 · answered by Plato 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
No. The birth of Jesus could NOT be a case of parthenogenesis.
The only example there might have been would be if Mary was the virgin birth.
Parthenogenesis only produces females from females.
Is it possible someone misinterpreted and mixed up the story?
2007-05-22 14:59:11 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
there is somewhat many a thank you to offer existence which contain human beings.. that's been performed with genetic cloning via our very own for the previous 60 yrs or so. i'm not sure precisely how the virgin delivery replaced into fertilized, yet there are a number of suggestions to copulation. additionally, yet another element to contemplate is that during accordance to mediums including Edgar Cayce and another supplies, Yeshua and his mom, Mary, have been of a similar soul, so relatively a similar person in 2 our bodies. i'm analyzing some exciting suggestion in 'Jesus and the Essenes' via Dolores Cannon. you may locate that exciting.. i'm purely entering into area 2 and the relatively existence of Jesus, so i've got not examine too lots yet. Pz
2016-11-26 02:43:43 · answer #3 · answered by wisorserratore 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Religions don't like sex, and they find vaginal delivery rather distasteful. Most deities who are born on earth are exempted in some way from either or both of these.
In the case of JC, they reinterpreted the description of a normal husband and young wife to suggest that it was virgin birth. What a silly notion!
CD
2007-05-22 14:20:43 · answer #4 · answered by Super Atheist 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The short answer is "No."
Ask it in the science section next time.
Parthenogenesis only works when one egg fertilizes another. There can only be two X-chromosomes inherited. Men have one X and one Y chromosome, so Jesus would have to have been female for it to be parthenogenesis.
2007-05-22 14:13:36 · answer #5 · answered by Dylan H 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
According to some reading that I have done "virgin" in the Biblical text suggest that Mary was a young maiden, or in the times of the writings a young maiden. Not a virgin in the sense that we think of it today.
2007-05-22 17:25:18 · answer #6 · answered by having too much fun 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Knowing what I do about the subject, I don't think it could be the first recorded case.
Also, in response to another response, there is plenty of proof that Jesus Christ existed. Even historians who don't believe in God accept this fact because there are historical records. What they don't agree about is if what he said is true.
2007-05-22 14:23:54 · answer #7 · answered by Jason P 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If it had been parthenogenesis, Jesus would have been female. Lack of a Y chromosome.
2007-05-22 14:23:15 · answer #8 · answered by Sylvia H 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
i already knew the definition of that.it is scientifically impossible for a virgin to have a baby.joseph and mary had sex and out popped jesus.their is no doubt whatsoever about that.
2007-05-23 01:16:02 · answer #9 · answered by earl 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
virgin birth is a religious metaphor (common) used to describe the enlightenment experience. It has nothing to do with mary, mothers, or birth in any way.
2007-05-22 14:14:53 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋