in the Gospels. Everyone else was fighting the Roman occupation, but Jesus attacks only the Jews.
Not a single word against the occupation, taxes, Caesar, the Roman military, conscription, the Temple sacrifices being halted, etc, etc.
Kind of makes you wonder how many rewrites there were before the versions we have were released.
2007-05-22 12:13:18 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Staff Sgt., that is what I was referring to when I mentioned taxes. He gives deference to Caesar, while the Jewish leaders were expecting a different response.
2007-05-22 12:18:36 · update #1
Hardly a logical fallacy, Deus, but obviously an observation for which you have no explanation.
2007-05-22 12:21:25 · update #2
It does
2007-05-22 12:16:55 · answer #1 · answered by Sir Reginald Whiskers 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I agree that this is a matter of rewrites; or censorship, if you want to put it more plainly. Remember that long before the current Bible was compiled, the Christians had taken over Rome. The pope was the Holy Roman Emperor, in effect. So history has always been written by the winners, not the losers. Can anyone reasonably assume every single word Jesus spoke was recorded and passed along faithfully?
2007-05-23 00:22:03 · answer #2 · answered by auntb93 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Gee, collusion with the Roman empire. That must be why the Romans worked so long and so hard to stamp the sect of The Way out for its first 330 years of existence. Oh, by the way, Christ had a Zealot on his crew.
As for your prior question about the Germans. The leadership of the Nazis was in fact Odenist (Himmler) or atheist. They put millions of Catholics to death. Pope John Paul had to study for the priesthood underground. Had he been discovered he would have suffered death as many of his friends had. Ever hear of Maximilian Kolbe? Oscar Schindler was a Roman Catholic. Hitler may have been baptized at birth but was NO Catholic in life.
2007-05-22 12:32:57 · answer #3 · answered by InSeattle 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Many. Many. Many. Nothing in the bible can be supported factually as truly being the words of Jesus. Everything was written decades or centuries after the primary events, based on embellished hearsay and innuendo. Most verses were written expressing the personal biases and agendas of the writers, none of whom actually met or knew Jesus or anyone else who lived at that time.
2007-05-22 12:20:54 · answer #4 · answered by Skeff 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I think it's time we had a little sit down with the followers of christianity, judaism, and islam and showed them the actual history of their religions. They seem to be under the impression that their religions appeared from nowhere as the direct words of god, untainted or minimally tainted by man. I think they need to know just how much went into creating their religions, and what it took for them to become dominant ideas in today's societies.
2007-05-22 12:21:57 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Jesus mission was to save his people,the children of Israel,not get involve with the politics of the day.If you took the time to read the gospel you would see that Jesus commands us to give to Ceaser what belongs to Ceaser and give to God what belongs to God.Luke 20:21-25.
2007-05-22 12:34:51 · answer #6 · answered by zachary b 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It's kinda funny give unto ceasar what is ceasars give unto god what is god's.Then destroy the roman empire and the U.S to.
2007-05-22 13:01:56 · answer #7 · answered by Amy m 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no he did say that thing about Caesars coins during taxes to give to caesar what is caesars and to God what is Gods but other than that its pretty blank
2007-05-22 12:16:36 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Quick quiz: who can tell me which logical fallacy this question employs?
http://www.nizkor.org/features/fallacies
2007-05-22 12:17:27 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋