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The filioque clause was, and still is, a controversy in the church in relation to the Holy Spirit. The question is, from whom did the Holy Spirit proceed, the Father, or the Father and the Son. The word "filioque" means "and son" in Latin. It is referred to as the filioque “clause” because the phrase “and son” was added to the Nicene Creed, indicating that the Holy Spirit proceeded from the Father “and Son.” There was so much contention over this issue that it eventually led to the split between the Roman Catholic and Eastern Orthodox churches in A.D. 1054. The two churches are still not in agreement on the filioque clause.

John 14:26 tells us, "But the Counselor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name..." John 15:26 tells us, "When the Counselor comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, the Spirit of truth who goes out from the Father, He will testify about me." See also John 14:16 and Philippians 1:19. These Scriptures seem to indicate that the Spirit is sent out by both the Father and the Son. The essential matter in the filioque clause is a desire to protect the deity of the Holy Spirit. The Bible clearly teaches that the Holy Spirit is God (Acts 5:3-4). Those who oppose the filioque clause object because they believe the Holy Spirit proceeding from the Father and the Son makes the Holy Spirit "subservient" to the Father and Son. Those who uphold the filioque clause believe that the Holy Spirit proceeding from both the Father and the Son does not impact the Spirit being equally God with the Father and the Son

2007-05-21 18:18:21 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

It was not originally a matter of doctrinal disagreement among the Orthodox, but a matter of loyalty to the exact extent of wording in a particulat Council's Creed. The version that added "FILIOQUE" did not overstep the beliefs behind the version that merely didn't mention the SPIRIT proceding from the SON, but it is merely a case of not every possible orthodox phrase being exhausted the first time around, in formulating that confession, and it being thought of later as a means of completing the earlier expression of a thought not exhausted in the earlier expression.

Because the Council of Nicea was divinely inspired, the honor accorded its credal formulation, apart from still relying on the SAME GUIDING SPIRIT, led to a fossilization of only the version of the Creed without the clause in question.

2007-05-21 18:20:39 · answer #2 · answered by Travis J 3 · 0 0

I am an atheist of long standing, but have given a Thumbs Up to Sparkles' lucid answer. The whole controversy illustrates what a silly morass religion has become. I looked at the question involved, and the only thing that came to mind was: why on earth would anyone care about such a silly issue? And to schism a church on it is asinine.

2007-05-21 18:35:27 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Not much. It is basically the oposing views of the Holy Spirit proceding from the Father only (as the Eastern Orthodox believe) or from the Father and Son (as the Roman Catholics believe). The "and the Son" was added to the Nicaean Creed by the RCC and the EO aren't thrilled with it.

2007-05-21 18:18:50 · answer #4 · answered by Aspurtaime Dog Sneeze 6 · 0 0

A few Bishops decided to re-write the MYTH.... lol ...

Example:

The original section of the Nicene Creed on the Holy Ghost is as follows:

"And I believe in the Holy Ghost, the Lord and Giver of Life; who proceeds from the Father; who with the Father and the Son together is worshipped and glorified; who spoke by the prophets."

In 589, a local council of Spanish bishops added the phrase, “and the son”, to the procession clause. Eventually, it gained popularity in Western Christendom and was codified. Thus, the section of the Nicene Creed on the Holy Ghost in the West became:

"And I believe in the Holy Ghost, the Lord and Giver of Life; who proceeds from the Father and the Son; who with the Father and the Son together is worshipped and glorified; who spoke by the prophets."

Burp !

2007-05-21 18:33:52 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You were "never" his fan??Are you sure about that?SRK is a publicity monger and he can do anything to achieve publicity for his films etc etc :P. Each person is doing his own job of creating publicity be it SRK or Shiv Sena :P. You just can't say that SRK is not doing any "publicity" :P. @ ॥★ଆଶିଷ୍ tHE Ðєsí ßøý★॥™-lmao =)) =)),that was funny :D. But let me tell you one thing,I am already too popular to resort to such cheap gimmicks =)),jk :D.

2016-05-19 07:13:15 · answer #6 · answered by nadia 2 · 0 0

sorry too late to read up on Wikipedia, I'm too busy asking important questions like, Amish women entering the a Nunnery, (if that's a word) : ) good night, peace.

2007-05-21 18:19:54 · answer #7 · answered by TRACER 2 · 1 1

Thank you for asking
and thank you "sparkles" for answering
I had no idea what it was...Very intersting for thought...
So this just proves that "anyone" can learn something from R&S

2007-05-21 18:22:13 · answer #8 · answered by Rev R 4 · 0 0

Nothing other than what I know you already know!

2007-05-21 18:12:29 · answer #9 · answered by ZER0 C00L ••AM••VT•• 7 · 1 0

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