Why will there be a new heaven and a new earth? Because the old heaven and earth have both come into contact with sin. The old heaven---satan rebelled, and as in the book of Job--appeared and brought accusation against believers. The old earth because man rebelled and his progeny also sinned. The coming forth of sin as a principle is "original sin". Sin in the singular means sin as a principle, as an entity-----------------Agree?
2007-05-20 19:09:06 · 12 answers · asked by Lover of God 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
2 Corinthians 5:21, God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
Yes, Jesus had to die because of our sin nature which, allows us to commit sins, in order to free us from death.
2007-05-20 19:20:37 · answer #1 · answered by 4HIM- Christians love 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
A New Heaven and a New Earth simply refer to a New System of Things. A new Government under Jesus as King in Heaven and also upon the earth. The price that must be paid for Original Sin is Death. He is going to wipe that out.
2007-05-20 19:13:10 · answer #2 · answered by Starjumper the R&S Cow 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Sin as a whole as affects all of mankind, and sin affects mankind individually. Jesus' act at the cross, opened the way for man to have forgiveness of sin, IF a person asked for it, believing that Jesus is whom He says that He is. It isn't a blanket removal of all sin from everyone, asked for or not. It is, as outlined, a provision for people to find redemption, and salvation IF they want it, and IF they ask for it as outlined in the Bible.
The new Heaven and new Earth are of God's design for the eternal Kingdom that will be established by Jesus. Whether or not the rebellion of man and that of Satan have anything to do with it all is only something to discuss, and offer conjecture for. If God wanted to just do "urban renewal" of what exists now, He could do that just as well. He doesn't tell us why, and that "why" is really none of our business, right now. We don't have a need to know.
2007-05-20 19:23:19 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The concept of original sin is specifically connected to Adam's disobedience. It refers to a deed not to a principle. Proof in link below.
See this page link below, there is scriptural proof for this. What else you are talking about is confusing. Be more specific next time or contact me.
http://bythebible.page.tl/Ransom.htm
2007-05-20 20:22:50 · answer #4 · answered by Fuzzy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
O Christians why not you reveal your god that Jesus has paid the price of your crimes and sins?
Most of sinful and alchohlic christians are being afflicted by God with STD (Sexually transmitted diseases) including AIDS and Hepatitis. Why not you tell your god that Jesus has paid the price and do not afflict us due out sins and crimes??? Or your sins and crimes exceeded than price paid?
Savior
I, even I, am Yahweh; and beside me there is no savior…a just God and a Savior; there is none beside me” (43:11; 45:21).
Ezekiel 18:20
The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him.
James2:24
Ye see then how that by works a man is just
2007-05-20 19:12:09 · answer #5 · answered by Punter 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Don't try to go to far in understanding the English when English is not the oldest language to understand it in.
Try the Greek. Besides, even in English 'sin' can be plural.
2007-05-20 19:36:05 · answer #6 · answered by Christian Sinner 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The bible says that the Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of us all. Iniquity is the condition from which sin comes. In the same bible passage it says that he bare the sin of many. God was himself paying for our transgression, as we all turn to our own way, as we go astray.
2007-05-20 19:36:57 · answer #7 · answered by hisgloryisgreat 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, I do. As long as you're not saying in addition that the blood of Christ washes us from the stain of individual actual sins which we have committed.
2007-05-20 19:11:37 · answer #8 · answered by harlomcspears 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When the Bible talks about sin, it is often referring to the plural "sin". Meaning all sin, not just one sin.
2007-05-20 19:13:56 · answer #9 · answered by clbinmo 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
These are concepts that are foreign to the Abrahamic message.
.
2007-05-20 19:11:49 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋