If you are not a Christian, then you are free to admit that she was not a virgin. But then why do you jump to the conclusion that she either did something immoral or was raped? Biblical scholars point out that the idea of the virgin birth was not even mentioned in the earliest Christian writings. The idea seems to have been unheard of until several years after Jesus' death. So why not believe that Mary had Jesus when she was married to Joseph, perfectly morally, and that the idea that she was a virgin when she conceived was made up later, to illustrate the divinity of Jesus?
To accuse Mary of sexual sin is to accept that people thought she was a virgin all along. Where is your evidence of that?
2007-05-20
00:41:07
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16 answers
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asked by
Heron By The Sea
7
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Adam - there IS mention of Joseph as Jesus' father. BOTH genealogies in the New Testament trace Jesus' lineage through his father Joseph. Yes, I know people claim that one of these is Mary's genealogy, but not according to the Bible itself. It makes it clear in both cases that those are both Joseph's line.
2007-05-20
00:46:55 ·
update #1
i saw a bumpersticker that said something like: You Wouldn't Believe Your Daughter Either!!!!! LOL
2007-05-20 00:48:21
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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People do this because Mary was pregnant before her marriage to Joseph. If her pregnancy wasn't the result of the Holy Spirit or the by-product of a rape (no sin on Mary's part in either case), then by extension people would assume that she had been seduced by someone, probably Joseph.
However, Joseph is "out" as Jesus' mortal father. The record states that after Mary's visit from the Angel Gabriel, she immediately became pregnant, and then left Nazareth for 3 months. When she returned to Nazareth pregnant, and Joseph found out (as well as her parents, etc.) he considered calling off the marriage (they were only engaged at the time): THE BABY WASN'T HIS. There was just no way he was going to take the blame for seducing Mary, even though it wasn't that uncommon a practice. The punishment for such a deed could have involved a public flogging for Joseph, something he hadn't earned.
The physical damage done by a rape would have been too obvious, and Mary would have been exonerated of wrongdoing. It was even included in the Jewish Torah that forcible rape was NOT the girl's fault, and that no woman should be punished for surviving such an event. The man, however, was supposed to be killed.
It should be pointed out that the pagan notion of gods and demi-gods "impregnating" young girls never took place without sex. The "deity" in question would always take the form of a young hot stud in order to have his way with the chosen female. There WERE NO PAGAN VIRGIN BIRTHS, they were all concieved through sexual intercourse. Temple prostitution (in several pagan religions) helped to perpetuate the myth of sleeping with a "god", and illegitimate children were shrugged off as the offspring of such events.
Judaism did NOT have Temple prostitutes. Prostitution was explicitly forbidden under Jewish law, and was NEVER part of the worship of G*d.
The first mention of a saviour being born to a virgin can be traced back to Genesis, as God is leading Adam and Eve out of the Garden of Eden. God tells Eve that there will be war between the serpent and "her seed" for all eternity, and that the serpent would "bruise his heel", but that "her seed" would "crush the head of the serpent". It is this reference to the "seed of the woman" that marks a prophecy of a virgin birth. Women were NOT credited with having "seed" (semen)--that was only, always, credited to men! Men beget, women bear. For a woman to give a "seed" would be to produce a child without a man's help, hence, without sexual intercourse.
The question of Jesus parentage came up repeatedly during His earthly ministry. It was NOT a later question introduced after His Ascension to "prove" His divinity.
2007-05-20 08:28:17
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answer #2
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answered by MamaBear 6
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Exactly what you said.
The fact that people have been accusing poor Mary of sexual impropriety for literally centuries pretty much proves that there was the idea that she was a virgin, even from the beginning.
The term used in Isaiah translates, or so I've been told, to "young woman". In Mary's society, a "young woman" who was betrothed but had not yet consummated her marriage had very well better be a virgin. There was no acceptable alternative.
The Jews who began to circulate such dirty over-the-back-fence gossip stories about Mary knew exactly what they were doing.
In our more permissive times, we are just gullible enough to believe it...and human beings do so love a bit of juicy gossip.
Much love, Hun!!
2007-05-20 09:54:27
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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In the ancient world, great men were often understood to be born of mortal women and divine fathers. Sheesh. I mean, really. Have you ever noticed how stupid other people's myths are? Untill you notice this is our myth too.
Rome's founder, Romulus, was the Son of the God Mars, and Rea Sivia, a mortal Vestal virgin --The first Roman emperor Augustus (62 BC - 14 AD), was the son of the God Apollo, conceived by a holy-snake---The godman Dionysus was the Son of Zeus and the mortal Semele.--the early Christians recognized, and explained away as "demonic imitation" -- copied by the earlier Pagans from the later Christians, magically, backwards in time.
thanks for the LOLZ crazy *** christians
2007-05-20 07:50:32
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answer #4
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answered by noXizTenC 2
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If she had sex I don't consider it a sin,whether or not she was married or not. But since the church teaches that she was not yet married I simply go on the fact that in their eyes she would have had to commit the sin of pre-marital sex in order to be pregnant,since the concept of the virgin birth is indeed poppycock. Besides the fact that in Jewish culture of the time, as in Muslim culture now I find it hard to believe that a woman should be held accountable for any sexual "impropriety" since women were essentially property and under the will of the men in their lives.
AD
2007-05-20 07:52:09
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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The translation of the Latin virgo, meaning young woman was translated to meaning virgin, and it did not have that meaning. Mary was married to Joseph and I do not understand why the concept and mistranslation of virgo continues.
2007-05-20 07:56:28
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Why wouldn't Joseph claim to be the father of Jesus, if your scenario is true??? Why wouldn't there be any mention of Joseph being Jesus's father in writings or ancient text???
2007-05-20 07:44:56
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answer #7
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answered by Adam G 6
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Catholics still do believe that Mary remained a virgin, despite the fact that she had other children.
In my experience, people claim virginity and might really believe it when they repress memories of sexual assault or other behaviour they can't think about.
2007-05-20 07:44:44
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answer #8
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answered by MiD 4
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She had a splendid moment with a splendid young stud called Gabriel and got pregnant. Joseph was a good guy and decided to raise the kid as his own. The rest are fantasies...
2007-05-20 07:49:26
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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where is your evidence for what you're saying? and do you really think that anyone know the truth? it happened 2000 years ago and yeah the bible is just a book written not by god but some dudes.how do we even know that what's in the bible is real?
2007-05-20 07:46:48
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answer #10
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answered by banzaiii 4
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Why are xians so obsessed with female virginity but are completely un-interrested with male virginity.
To me it is all about suppressing woman to serve man.
2007-05-20 07:50:16
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answer #11
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answered by Anonymous
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