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Gen 1:26 ¶ And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

It doesn't mean god is a trinity.


In the semetic languages such as Arabic, aramiac, Hebrew.

There are two types of plurals:

1) The plural of number.

2) The plural of respect.


The verse doesn't mean god is a trinity. if you say that then he can't be one he has to be three according to you.

You can't have it both ways, he is either one or three, not both.


This verse and many like it refer to the plural of respect. it only glorifies god.


Like when a king says: "We have decided" or "come join us"

it has much more statues then saying "I have decided". "come
join me".

If you don't believe me as an expert in the semitic languages.

2007-05-19 06:10:35 · 21 answers · asked by DBznut 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

21 answers

Qur'an 2:85 "...Do you then believe in a part of the Book and disbelieve in the other?..."

This is the Problem with christians, God has made it very clear.

Qur'an :
[112.1] Say: He, Allah, is One.
[112.2] Allah is He on Whom all depend.
[112.3] He begets not, nor is He begotten.
[112.4] And none is like Him.

2007-05-19 06:16:22 · answer #1 · answered by Black Hole Gravity Unleashed 3 · 0 1

The Trinity consists of three Persons: Genesis 1:1; 1:26; 3:22; 11:7; Isaiah 6:8; 48:16; 61:1; Matthew 3:16-17; Matt 28:19; 2 Corinthians 13:14. In the passages in the Old Testament, a knowledge of Hebrew is helpful. In Genesis 1:1, the plural noun "Elohim" is used. In Genesis 1:26; 3:22; 11:7 and Isaiah 6:8, the plural pronoun for "us" is used. That "Elohim" and "us" refer to more than two is WITHOUT question. In English, you only have two forms, singular and plural. In Hebrew, you have three forms: singular, dual, and plural. Dual is for two ONLY. In Hebrew, the dual form is used for things that come in pairs like eyes, ears, and hands. The word "Elohim" and the pronoun "us" are plural forms - definitely more than two - and must be referring to three or more (Father, Son, Holy Spirit).

In Isaiah 48:16 and 61:1, the Son is speaking while making reference to the Father and the Holy Spirit. Compare Isaiah 61:1 to Luke 4:14-19 to see that it is the Son speaking. Matthew 3:16-17 describes the event of Jesus' baptism. Seen in this is God the Holy Spirit descending on God the Son while God the Father proclaims His pleasure in the Son. Matthew 28:19 and 2 Corinthians 13:14 are examples of 3 distinct persons in the Trinity.

2007-05-19 06:18:31 · answer #2 · answered by Freedom 7 · 1 0

We know that there were many others with God when he formed the earth. This is brought out in Job 38:4-7, which states that the angels were there. But the Bible is more specific. Proverbs 8:22-31 specifically states that "Wisdom" - which is Jesus Christ - was with God during creation, and that he was God's "Master Worker." This is harmonized with John 1:1-3, Colossians 1:15-20, and Hebrews 1:2. All these describe Jesus as the agent through which God created everything. So, logically, Jesus was part of the "us" and "our" of Genesis 1:26. The Hebrew word for God - Elohim - being in the plural does not mean God is a Trinity. It is a function of grammar, and not theology. It is called the "plural of excellence [or majesty]," and was a common occurrence in Hebrew. Some false gods and even men in the Bible are referred to using the plural of excellence, but it is to be understood in the singular. That function of Hebrew grammar is best grasped by English speakers in the example of a King or Queen saying: "We are not amused." That is one instance where an English speaker uses the plural of excellence.

2016-04-01 10:23:18 · answer #3 · answered by Lisa 4 · 0 0

The Trinity is a human concept we use in order to understand God. It was created by Christians long after the life of Jesus. It is not contradictory to believe in a triune God, but it is a bit mind-blowing if you let it be. That's a good thing. Hindus also see God both as an all-encompassing divinity and as individual aspects of God (i.e. "gods"), leading many westerners to believe mistakenly that it is a simple polytheistic religion.

If we define God as something beyond human comprehension, then it stands to reason that none of us has a complete definition of God. I do believe that spirituality is experiential to a large extent. When you get into the realm of the cerebral, it becomes philosophy (fun, but different).

2007-05-19 06:22:19 · answer #4 · answered by shanseuse 2 · 1 0

I'm going to say what I said before:

"Genesis 1:26 was written long long before Christianity and really before Judaism too. Judaism is a religion that evolved from the different religions of the area that were polytheistic (mainly the Egyption cults). It later became a religion with a belief in only one god. The verse is referring to the other gods. Later, Christianity would attempt to rectify this mistake by saying that he is referring to the trinity."

You could say that god is just talking like the queen of england if you want. lol

2007-05-19 06:16:52 · answer #5 · answered by A 6 · 0 0

So is your question a question or a diatribe expressing your opinion based upon your unofficial status as an expert?
No disrespect meant by that comment. Who are you arguing with, yourself?

It could also be a problem with the translation process, human beings make mistakes translating, but generally speaking the bible refers repeatedly to the 'Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit' which suggests the Trinity.

It is up to individuals to decide for themselves. Faith is a very personal thing.

2007-05-19 06:18:51 · answer #6 · answered by fiddlesticks9 5 · 0 0

God might be speaking in regards to all the heavenly powers, that participate in his creative work.

This reference might be understood as a kind of foreshadowing of the revelation of the Trinity, but as a "prooftext" it is limited and ambiguous. For Christians, the revelation of the Trinity happens in the revelation of Christ. This revelation becomes a means by which certain references in the Old Testament are often read. However, if one does not accept the revelation of Christ, one will probably not accept that references in the Old Testament are somehow "proving" dogmatic and doctrinal belief of the Christian faith.

2007-05-19 06:28:16 · answer #7 · answered by Timaeus 6 · 0 0

Yes it is a stretch to apply the Genesis passages to the Trinity. Also because the concept did not come around till much later. It is quite an assumption and a stretch to think that the writer or writers meant the Trinity.

2007-05-19 06:16:33 · answer #8 · answered by The_Slasher_of_Veils 2 · 0 0

I heard some people say it is the royal "we".

I still think that there is a Trinity.

Jesus always said "my/our Father".
And that Jesus did not do or say any thing on His own, but only what the Father said or did.

Jesus said that the Comforter could not come until He left.

Jesus said that He wanted His believers to be 1 as He and the Father are one (you and I are 2 not 1).

2007-05-19 06:17:30 · answer #9 · answered by tim 6 · 0 0

""Now go back to Genesis and review again what God did in the beginning. Each animal was created "according to its kind" (Genesis 1:24). So cattle reproduce cattle. Lions reproduce lions, and so on. This was God’s mind or pattern as He created each creature. Then God said, "Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness (Genesis 1:26). In plain language, God was indicating that they—the God Family now known as the Father and His Son Jesus Christ—would begin to reproduce themselves, adding more members to the "God Family"! Does it sound blasphemous to you to think that God planned to reproduce "after His kind"?
Some of the self-appointed religious leaders during Jesus’ day thought so. You might be surprised to learn that this matter of God having a family was a big issue of debate between Jesus and that day’s religious authorities. For Jesus had said to them, "I and my Father are one" (John 10:30). This statement by Jesus angered the religious leaders enough that they considered Him a heretic worthy of death.
When Jesus asked them why they were trying to kill Him, these honored religious authorities retorted, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy, and because You, being a man, make Yourself God" (v. 33).
Notice carefully what Jesus said to defend Himself against this charge of blasphemy, "Is it not written in your law, ‘I said, "you are gods"’? If He called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the scripture cannot be broken), do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?" (vv. 34–36).
The passage Jesus referred to is Psalm 82:6. The Hebrew word translated as "gods" is Elohim. It is the same word translated "God" in Genesis 1:1, and is used hundreds of times throughout the Old Testament to denote the divine Being. Many modern religious scholars maintain that this word just means "mighty judges." But this is not a valid understanding of the usage of the Hebrew word Elohim. Otherwise Jesus would not have been so quick to pick this passage in a life or death situation. Jesus used this passage in the Psalms to clearly show that man does have God-like potential, that humanity is truly "made in the image" of God. Obviously those incensed religious authorities recognized that Jesus was flesh and blood just as they were. ""

Elohim contains the plural ending -im ("gods"). See: Exodus 12:12; Psalm 97:7.
(Names of God in the Old Testament:, The Anchor bible Dictionary, vol. 4, p.1006).
"There is irrefutable proof that this plural noun (Elohim) is to be understood as conveying, not the sense of a dual or a triune God, but of a "God Family" with more than one member."

http://www.tomorrowsworld.org/cgi-bin/tw/booklets/tw-bk.cgi?category=Booklets1&item=1104093303

2007-05-19 19:21:37 · answer #10 · answered by KNOWBIBLE 5 · 0 0

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