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Just Dust

2007-05-19 03:20:01 · answer #1 · answered by Dust in the Wind 7 · 2 0

Just to clarify, the Roman Catholic Church has only one Bible which is the Latin Vulgatæ. At any rate they [the Protestants] pretty much followed the Jews who removed the 7 Deutero-Canonical books back around 90-95 AD. The Catholic Council of Trent, called to counter changes made by Martin Luther, again reaffirmed the canonicity of all 46 books of the Old Testament. Some Protestant reformers who attended, tried to get the Church to accept the list of books which the Jewish rabbis had chosen at Jamnia. The Church refused and upheld her teaching from Pope Damasus I, and the Council of Florence. As a result, Protestants have the same New Testament books as Catholics, but their Old Testament differs because it does not contain the books rejected by the rabbis at Jamnia, and much later, rejected by Martin Luther. It is interesting that for 1500 years all Christians accepted the same canon for the Old Testament. Only in the last 480 years, since the reformation, has there been disagreement from Protestants.

2016-05-17 09:48:26 · answer #2 · answered by summer 3 · 0 0

No, he didn't have that authority, He was a German and didn't represent the world church; in fact, it would be about 200 years after Luther that the Bible Society removed the Apocrapha from the Bible. Only the Catholic and Anglican's Jerusalem Bibles keeps it. and that is dangerous because some people think everything between the pages is blessed, but those non-inspired writings are better read from other sources.

Blessings, One-Way

P.S.: The Apocrapha first appeared in the Greek Septuigent and the Jews told the Greek's that part was not official. In fact, it is not in the Jewish Bible today.

2007-05-19 03:22:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

""P.S.: The Apocrapha first appeared in the Greek Septuigent and the Jews told the Greek's that part was not official. In fact, it is not in the Jewish Bible today.""

So...

Protestants attempt to defend their rejection of the deuterocanonicals on the grounds that the early Jews rejected them. However, the Jewish councils that rejected them ( in 90 - 100 A.D.) were the same councils that rejected the entire New Testament.

So it follows that Protestants who reject the Catholic Bible are following a Jewish council that rejected Christ and the New Testament.

Martin Luther also removed portions of the Books of Daniel and Esther.

He also wanted to remove the Epistle of Saint James, calling it an "Epistle of straw".

Thankfully this last was rejected by his peers.

2007-05-19 03:41:43 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

A) He was using a much older version of the Jewish canon to make his selection, having decided that he was better able to do so than the leaders of the church of more than a thousand years prior to his coming. After all, nothing written after the Greeks came to town could possibly have any value.

B) The books he selected for dismissal just happened to have passages which refuted many of his proclamations about what constituted the faith. Can't have Scripture saying "no" when you're busy trying to tell folks "yes" and then admonishing them to think Sola Scritura. Sola Scritura will clobber you if you leave those books in the canon.

C) He would dearly have loved to have omitted the Epistle of James to the Hebrews, calling it an "epistle of straw", but even his most ardent follower, Melanchthon, stalled at that, so he hadda leave it in. Poor baby. Right there, in the words of one of Jesus' closest followers, the first leader of the Church in Jerusalem (see Acts), James, says that faith without works is dead and benefits you nothing. OOOPS! Sola Fide takes a real beating with that one!

BTW, you can find them in most modern translations as "the Apocrypha". If you want them in the original order in which the early church disposed them, then get the New American Bible.

Hope this helped.

2007-05-19 03:28:54 · answer #5 · answered by Granny Annie 6 · 1 0

Martin Luther wanted to discard many things of the Catholic Church, so he discarded the canon of scripture used by Jesus and His Apostles (Macabees is the only book that mentions the resurrection of the body) and adopted the canon developed by the Jewish leader that crucified Christ

The reason the RCC did not officially adopt the cannon until after Luther is because for the first 1500 years of history, no one disputed the canon of scripture.

2007-05-19 03:24:16 · answer #6 · answered by Sldgman 7 · 1 2

The definition of OT is one thing dividing USA Christianity presently. The scriptural OT is the law of Moses, not Genesis-Malachi. The 7 books (apparently) referenced in the question are not scriptural OT.

2007-05-19 04:38:00 · answer #7 · answered by jefferyspringer57@sbcglobal.net 7 · 0 2

Please note the RCC had never officially canonized those books until AFTER Luther rejected their status. The RCC decision was in response to Luther.

2007-05-19 03:23:49 · answer #8 · answered by Aspurtaime Dog Sneeze 6 · 1 0

The poor man was mentaly unbalanced as has been recorded and proved by many writers.

2007-05-19 03:24:23 · answer #9 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 1 1

Because that particular fiction did not fit his fiction. Therefore, he hit the delete button.

2007-05-19 03:20:40 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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