2007-05-18 19:49:18 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Syllogism.
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2007-05-18 20:00:22 · answer #1 · answered by lcmcpa 7 · 5⤊ 0⤋
This is a formal syllogistic fallacy called 'Undistributed Middle'
It occurs when the middle term is not distributed at least once:
All A's are C's.
All B's are C's.
Therefore, all A's are B's
The term 'B' has not been distributed at least once, and so the structure is invalid.
2007-05-20 02:22:00 · answer #2 · answered by Monkee Fugg 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
An untruth, basically.
It's not a syllogism. Syllogisms are more like;
All cats can see in the dark.
Smokey is a cat.
Therefore, Smokey can see in the dark.
This statement could be true, but what if Smokey is blind?
That's more of a syllogism.
2007-05-19 20:47:31 · answer #3 · answered by xsneaker_pimpsx 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
A will equal B if you take them a any random member of a certain spp. you see 2 is never equal to 2 as the two occupy different space in time but yet they are considered equals hence a boy of a spp. must be equal to another boy of equal age of that particular spp.
2007-05-19 04:07:57 · answer #4 · answered by god 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
scientifically we wud NOT use equal sign, we would use the 'similar' sign
A ~ B
not A= B
2007-05-19 02:55:01 · answer #5 · answered by catty 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, but if a+b=c, then someone is lying.
2007-05-19 02:54:24 · answer #6 · answered by blakereik 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋