2007-05-18 16:07:12 · 20 answers · asked by Niki S 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
If she was given the money, she already has it, right?
Although it would be nice to get a house, the final decision is hers
2007-05-18 16:22:51 · answer #1 · answered by Experto Credo 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The parents should make it clear, preferably in writing, how they want that money be used. If it is a gift to both, then there is no issue with the house being equal share. But if for some reason, the parents dictate that the money is for their daughter, then the real estate agent can help put it down as how the amount is to be treated: a known percentage to be given to their daughter or as a loan to be repaid.
If it is wishy washy, then the wife can't claim it back.
2007-05-18 23:15:38 · answer #2 · answered by Sir Richard 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The house you mean? Yes, I would think so if she put all of that money into it. However, in many states, if the house is in both your names, the judge will give you the opportunity to buy each other out or sell it and split the profits. You need to speak to a lawyer.
If you are talking about if she is entitled to the money, it seems that if it was a wedding present, it should belong to both of you.
2007-05-18 23:14:49 · answer #3 · answered by vanhammer 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
By in intitled to it does she have the right to spend then yes but as husband wife you both should agree what you spend the money on.
2007-05-18 23:09:49 · answer #4 · answered by leona 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What you've asked is half a question. I think if it was given as a wedding gift with strings attached meaning it is only to be used as a down payment for the house then what's your concern. Your newlyweds and you're already fighting over money?
2007-05-18 23:12:55 · answer #5 · answered by seashell 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that depends on if you paid back the money. if you took the money and didn't pay it back, why would you think you are entitled to any part of it? but if you used the money to buy a house, then paid the parents back, then the house should be half yours, and if you are separating or divorcing then the house should be sold and the money split between the two of you
2007-05-18 23:13:42 · answer #6 · answered by BJC 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Is you wife trying to keep the money for herself? Does she suddenly not want to use the money for the house? Maybe you can talk to her parents about? If it was a wedding gift, I don't see how she'd be entitled to all of it, but if they gave her a check with only her name on it or didn't bring you into the mix, I can see why she'd think it was hers.
2007-05-18 23:11:42 · answer #7 · answered by Trish C 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
YES she is b/c it was given to her. It's her decision on whatever she wants to do with it. But since your married to her, the right thing to do is to decide together what to do with the money. Don't let any amount of money over power your marriage. Work it out TOGETHER. That's the way it's suppose to be :)
2007-05-18 23:12:26 · answer #8 · answered by sugarBear 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
She can spend the gift from her parents anyway she wants, even if they said it was for a house. Unless her parents gave this gift to both of you, your wife gets to decide how spend the money.
2007-05-18 23:10:57 · answer #9 · answered by raichasays 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, every last cent is hers , the moneys was a gift or loan
to her from her family. Unlike wages that you would get half. Same go's for inherent, both my parents have passed away and my husband has no clam on the moneys I received. till I die at lease anyway.
2007-05-19 00:09:14 · answer #10 · answered by Bety P 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋