2007-05-18 09:28:56 · 6 answers · asked by sajoker_04 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
I'm fairly certain that's illegal in most places.
2007-05-18 09:30:57 · answer #1 · answered by Alowishus B 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ummmm.....you cannot provide title to a buyer for something on which you yourself do not have title. In order to actually sell the premises, you must have title to it first. If, however, you have made an offer to purchase a property and it is accepted, you MAY be able to transfer the authority of the offer to purchase to another person. That would depend on any contractual language included in that offer.
2007-05-18 16:33:30 · answer #2 · answered by acermill 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Do you have the contractual obligation to buy the house? If so, you can sell your rights to the contract if your contract is assignable. Or you can close on the property, then sell to another buyer.
2007-05-18 18:17:56 · answer #3 · answered by William H 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Many more details required to give a good answer to this question. How will you be coming into possession of this property, etc.
2007-05-18 17:50:51 · answer #4 · answered by Phineas J. Whoopee 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You cannot "legally" do that.
2007-05-18 16:38:44 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
you can't
2007-05-18 16:31:12 · answer #6 · answered by ? 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋