The Catholic Church does not have an official stance which types of sex are allowable when a man and woman are married as long as it is consensual and done in moderation.
The purpose of sex is to bring a husband and wife closer and to create human life.
With love in Christ.
2007-05-17 18:25:14
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answer #1
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answered by imacatholic2 7
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Catholic sexual morality is based on the natural law which states that sex within marriage has two ends - the procreative and the unitive. Any act that does not frustrate either of these ends is licit. If oral sex does not result in the spilling of semen and is not used in place of vaginal intercourse, then it does not violate the procreative end. If it is acceptable, to both parties, then it does not violate the unitive end. If both of these conditions are met, then it is licit.
Loving Catholic spouses may indeed want and be ready, willing and able to give their spouses loving caresses and kisses from the top of their head to the tip of their toes. When you love someone, you derive pleasure simply from making them happy or causing them pleasure. It can be quite beautiful and an enhancement to sexual intercourse. I applaud you for your continued abstinence and it is well worth the wait!
Many Blessings!
2007-05-17 02:53:21
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answer #2
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answered by Michelle_My_Belle 4
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Thank YOU... for your Stand for Abstinence!
YOU.... will have the Purity and the Honesty.... TO GIVE TO YOUR WIFE!
Many.... CANNOT GIVE SUCH A GIFT! Sorry they Made THE WRONG CHOICE!
Being a Former Catholic, A LONG TIME AGO... there has been Much that has Changed.... BUT....YOU want to Know what the BIBLE... SAYS... and Not Some Church!
Churches.... CHANGE... WITH the Winds of Political Correctness!
God... and His Standard...THE BIBLE... Never Change!
God Killed ONAN...in Genesis 38 for Spilling his seed on the ground.
Oral Sex.... wastes the Seed that God intended for Pro-Creation!
WE.... live here in America... A Decadent Society WITHOUT PURITY.... and still CLAIM.... one nation under God? NOT!
Thanks, RR
2007-05-16 11:57:01
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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From the book, "The Good News about Sex & Marriage" by Christopher West:
4. Someone told me the Church teaches that oral sex is wrong even for married couples. Is that true?
It seems there are many troubled consciences out there looking for sound guidance on this issue. I’d even guess that the first thing many readers did when they got this book was to look up this question. So, what does the Church teach? It depends on what you mean by “oral sex.”
There’s nothing that singles out the genitals as being “unkissable” as part of a husband and wife’s foreplay to intercourse. The term “oral sex,” however, most often refers to acts in which orgasm is sought and achieved apart from an act of intercourse. Indeed, many couples consider such behavior a desirable alternative to normal intercourse. And yes, this is wrong, even for married couples - though the clarification made above regarding female orgasm is applicable here as well: It’s not objectively wrong if the wife achieves climax as a result of oral stimulation, so long as it’s within the context of a completed act of intercourse.
Oral copulation (that is, to the point of ejaculation) is simply not material. It effects no ‘communion of persons’ between the spouses. It’s the consummation of nothing. It involves a severance of the pleasure of orgasm from the responsibility of fertility. It fosters a husband’s tendency to objectify his wife. For these reasons, it does not and cannot symbolize and participate in the free, total and fruitful love of God. It does not and cannot symbolize the marriage bond or renew a couple’s vows.
Furthermore, while there’s nothing wrong per se with oral stimulation of the genitals as foreplay to intercourse, such expressions require the greatest degree of purity and reverence so as never to degrade the goodness of marital intimacy. This kind of purity is possible, but it’s also quite easy (especially for men, I’d say) to cross the line between love and lust, between intimately affirming the goodness of each other’s bodies (and receiving that affirmation) and merely seeking to gratify base desire at each other’s expense. As the saying goes, “from the sublime to the ridiculous is but a step” Spouses must always be sensitive to how easy they could take that step if they are to avoid it.
It should go without mentioning that a spouse who is uncomfortable with such behavior should never be pressured into performing it. (Again, for what ever reason, it’s usually husbands who exert pressure upon their wives.) Pressure exerted on a spouse to perform acts with which he or she is uncomfortable - even if they’re not objectively wrong - indicates lack of respect for that spouse. It’s a clear indication of having long since crossed the line between genuine love and self-seeking.
2007-05-16 12:00:21
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answer #4
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answered by Giggly Giraffe 7
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Ephesians 5:3 tells us, "But among you there must not be even a hint of sexual immorality, or of any kind of impurity...because these are improper for God's holy people." Anything that even "hints" of sexual immorality is inappropriate for a Christian. The Bible does not give us a "list" of what qualifies as a "hint" or tell us specifically what are approved physical activities that a couple can do before they are married. However, just because the Bible does not specifically address the issue - that does not mean God approves of "pre-sexual" activity before marriage. By essence, "foreplay" is designed to get you "ready" for sex. Logically, then, "foreplay" should be restricted to married couples. Anything that can be considered "foreplay" should be avoided until marriage. (There is no need to go into specifics here.)
Any and all sexual activity should be restricted to married couples. What can a pre-married couple do? A pre-married couple should avoid any activity that tempts them toward sex, that gives the appearance of immorality, or that could be considered "foreplay." I, personally, would strongly advise a couple to not go beyond holding hands, hugging, and light kissing before marriage. The more a married couple has to share exclusively between themselves, the more special and unique the sexual relationship in a marriage becomes.
2007-05-16 17:59:36
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answer #5
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answered by Freedom 7
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I'm not sure if they talk about a man performing it on a woman but a woman performing it on a man would fall into the general prohibition on birth control. As foreplay not resulting in a climax, you're probably okay.
2007-05-16 11:49:44
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answer #6
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answered by Dave P 7
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It doesn't say anything, officially.
That being said, I would assume that it would not be approved of IF copulation occurs orally. The thought behind this is that oral copulation doesn't leave the possibility of life to occure.
If it is being used as a prelude to "normal" sex then it might be o.k.
2007-05-16 11:50:56
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Officially all non-procreative sex is forbidden; in actual practice most catholics consider it to be purely a matter of private conscience. In terms of canon law,sanctions against non-procreative sexuality within the context of marriage are essentially a "dead-letter" law.
2007-05-16 11:51:20
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answer #8
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answered by Galahad 7
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Oral stimulation is not necessarilly wrong, if it is done (as foreplay) in conjunction with the straight sex act.
However, if the purpose of oral stimulation is to bring about orgasm, then it is morally wrong.
2007-05-18 23:30:00
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answer #9
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answered by Daver 7
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It's legal within the bounds of marriage, with your married partner. God gave us the pleasures of sex and invites us to enjoy as long as we are responsible.
2007-05-16 11:49:50
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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