It means that it is hearsay and has no evidentiary value whatsoever.
2007-05-14 23:59:01
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answer #1
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answered by Tsotsi 3
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Biblical scholars are in agreement that the gospels were not written by the Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John of the Bible, and the 'according to' does solve the problem of the disparrities that exist between some of the Gospels (in other words, the Gospels are subjective and .....sorry to the non educated......not objective). As people should be aware, the Bible does not contain all the writings of the time period concerned with Christianity. The fact that the Bible omits some writings, and the fact that even the writings that were made canon have had numerous intentional misinterpretations, should make it clear that the book as a whole is one of religion and politics. After all, why do you think one popular version of the Bible is called the 'King James Bible'. 'According to....' is as good a term as any when it comes to politics and subjectivity.
I just read some of these posts. Are these people serious. Listen. I was raised Catholic but it didn't mean I had to keep my head in the sand. Try studying some Biblical history people. Seriously. The Second Temple period is a fascinating time period. The bible was not written in a vacuum. If you truly believe it's the word of God, don't you think you would learn as much as you could instead of taking the lazy approach of just reading a poorly translated copy void of context. Whatever.
2007-05-15 00:14:40
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answer #2
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answered by Bee 2
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The gospel of Christ according to the person who saw it. Matthew saw it one way, Mark another, etc. The important thing is that they all agree on the divinity of Christ, and it shows a good account of his teachings.
Fabricating these dogmas? lol, Jesus didnt exist? The Bible is a farce? have you bothered to actually READ it? Lets see, the Gospels are fabricated dogmas, so given your reasoning all places and events in the Bible are WRONG. Jerusalem doesnt exist, Egypt never was, Damascus, Jericho, Nineva, The Dead Sea, Rome, about a thousand other places and events mentioned in the Bible that are just plain false. Well you just wiped out the main source book for many mid-east archeologists who are NOT CHRISTIAN but rely on the Bible for accurate data for their digs. You need to get out from under that rock more often and get some SONlight.
2007-05-15 00:19:00
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answer #3
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answered by fortheimperium2003 5
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The books were originally without titles. They just began at what would now be chapter 1 verse 1.
As the books began to be gathered by the Church fathers, labelling became necessary. According to does mean human preparation. We know, for example, that Polycarp was one of the redactors of John's Gospel. We do not know if Matthew existed and if he did, who he was. Luke is probably the Luke of apostolic tradition. Mark is probably the secretary of Peter who was martyred in Alexandria and from whom the papacy of Alexandria claims its apostolic succession.
The idea of the bible as handed down by God as a literal divine testament is a late invention of the Protestant Reformation. Earlier Christians just saw them as a combination of commentators and chroniclers. The whole point of apostolic tradition, prior to Luther, was that there was a body of knowledge, of which the scriptures are a part, handed down by the apostles. We do not know Jesus's ideas except as propogated through the handing down (tradition) of the apostles. Early Christianity trusted that the apostles were faithful in the transmission process, but even with faithfulness, they were describing these things through their eyes and not the lens of an objective camera.
Here is another way of thinking about it. Christians would never have felt a need for the papacy had the bible contained the pure clear word of God, unadultered by human intervention.
2007-05-15 00:28:34
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answer #4
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answered by OPM 7
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Gospel is Greek and it means "Good News"
It's just saying it's the Good News as told by Mark (or Matthew)
It just means that they are the ones telling their eyewitness account about what happend.
2007-05-15 00:06:52
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answer #5
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answered by pumped up! whoo hoo! 3
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the place are you able to ascertain "The gospel in accordance to saint..." in scripture? The names and financial ruin/verse divisions weren't component to the easily unique writings, yet have been extra later. Jesus warned his disciples to keep away from utilising particular non secular titles explaining they have been all brothers (and sisters) interior the religion. So no, Matthew does no longer have long gone around asserting "hi, my call is Saint Mathew yet you are able to call me Saint Mat"
2017-01-09 21:37:45
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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according to refers to the eyewitness aspect
in each case, each gospel is written either by an eyewitness or someone who had access to and spoke directly to eyewitnesses
Matthew was an apostle with Jesus and a former tax collector
Mark was a young man who was secretrary to apostle Peter
Luke was a gentile physician who interviewed many witnesses most notably Mary the mother of Jesus
John was the apostle John
interestingly neither John nor Luke name themselves in their accounts out of humility although they are in the stories, Luke is in acts but says 'we' John is an unamed disciple in his book... sorry Dan Brown...
2007-05-15 00:05:11
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Jesus Christ said he was just passing on what His Father said (See John 10:49 - http://scriptures.lds.org/en/john/12/49#49 ).
Jesus himself never wrote about his own ministry (at least, not that we know of). Each of the "Gospels" in the Bible are an account of the Jesus' ministry from the perspective of various eye-witnesses. It is equivalent to a testimony...
2007-05-15 00:12:44
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answer #8
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answered by MumOf5 6
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The title of the book of Mark and others in the bible were give to it when the bible was put together.
Some of the books in the new testiment were letters written to churches.
2007-05-15 00:02:39
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answer #9
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answered by LadyCatherine 7
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What is with this question "according to" -Punter- posted here on Yahoo. Does it mean it is not a question by -Punter-?
I guess some other persons took part in fabricating this question.
2007-05-14 23:59:51
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answer #10
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answered by fasi 2
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According to is only in the English translation. But in other translation they say "as it was written by ...".
Nobody on the earth can fabricate any single word in the bible. The bible is written in thousands of languages and all of them are identical.
2007-05-14 23:59:22
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answer #11
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answered by Mr. Bean 2
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