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Do Christians believe JESUS is the GOD of the Old Testament?

The Trinity contends that all three parts of God are one without any separation between them otherwise it would be proven to be polytheism.

Therefore, according to Christianity the God of the Old Testament is Jesus.

If you say yes, then you cannot ever deny that he sent the commandments written in the Old Testament.

Someone can say they don’t follow them anymore…ok…. But if they ever deny that he made these commands then JESUS was not the GOD of the Old Testament.

Here is one command JESUS sent down:


"If a man beats his male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must be punished, 21: but he is not to be punished if the slave gets up after a day or two, since the slave is his property.” ---- Exodus 21:20-21


If a Christian denies it was ever sent down by Jesus then either Jesus is not their God or they don’t believe that the Bible is the word of God.

Whether these are still enforced or whether these were sent millenniums ago…… are not the question.

The eye opener is that Christians cannot deny that according to their faith Jesus sent this command down.

Maybe enslaved men can handle a beating but fragile women would be in pain beyond imagination.

The point being made is not that Christians no longer follow the old law….the point is that if JESUS is the God of the OT then he said this about WOMEN.


///

2007-05-14 04:35:15 · 21 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

21 answers

I understand your point. The old testament god and Jesus are the same deity, according to trinity doctrine. In the new testament, Jesus claims that god is the same yesterday, today and forever. So not only are they the same person, they have the same attitude. In the new testament they just hide it better.
Btw Laptop Jesus: The use of slaves was just an example of the horrible things done in god's name in the old testament. If you don't like this one, how about "Thou shalt not suffer a witch to live"? Or maybe the one about killing homosexuals in Exodus? The overall point of that the god of the old testament can't be divorced from the god of the new testament the way so many christians would like, because they are actually the same unchanging person.

2007-05-14 04:50:35 · answer #1 · answered by Jensenfan 5 · 2 0

Here's what I think: The bible ( written by man, Shakespeare if I remember correctly) has been edited, revised and amended since it was first written. There have been parts removed, some added so who knows for sure which part is actually translated from God's original word. There are certain parts that I think is figuratively speaking and not so much literal. You may read something in one passage that will be totally contradicted in another. I am very spiritual and not so much religious. I have a personal relationship with God but not to the point of being a fanatic. I believe we were all born in sin ( as he knows) but life's journey should be about caring and loving others unselfishly, unconditionally, keeping his commandments and helping those who cannot help themselves. maybe I got off the question a little bit, but to answer, I do not think all in the bible was meant to be taken literally.

2007-05-15 02:08:11 · answer #2 · answered by To live is to learn 3 · 0 1

Christians generally believe that Jesus is "God, the Son". God is, according to Christianity, three persons in one (the Holy Trinity- God, the Father- God, the Son- and God, the Holy Spirit). Many do believe that Old Testament law still applies. But there are others who believe that Jesus' death and resurrection made all things new. In other words, it is believed by many that Jesus' sacrifice offers us the chance to be "born again" (new life in Christ Jesus) and, in a sense, abolished the old law.

It's important to remember that these are all beliefs- just beliefs, not facts. And the Bible is very much open for interpretation.

2007-05-14 04:45:51 · answer #3 · answered by SINDY 7 · 1 1

Good question. I will try to answer it the best that I can and I might have to do a lot more research to give you a better answer, but if you would like I will do so. However, this is what I can think of off the top of my mind. First, No, I do not deny that the Bible is from God, nor do I deny the that Jesus is part of the trinity. however, one of the things that I have learned is that context is king. In this context, the slaves of the Israelites in the Old Testament would have been the Cannanites, or the people from the surrounding nations who didn't belive in God and who actually served idols. Of these people groups God had commanded the Israelites to conquer, not to take slaves but to kill. Yes, this is something that is hard to deal with, but, the essence of it is that the Israelites, fresh from being enslaved themselves by the Egyptians needed to be pure from any idolitrous nations. no pluralism was to be tolerated. This was so that, in the long course of human history, God's people, the Israelites, could produce the savior of all people. This savior, Jesus Christ, fulfilled all of the Old Testament law, so that we, all of those who have come after Him and believe in him, might be freed from the law. In the New Testament, we're taught that we are "one in Christ", that we all hold equal ground in front of him. I hope that this answers your question, and if not, I'm certianly willing to do more research to give you a better answer.

2016-05-17 22:37:06 · answer #4 · answered by johna 4 · 0 0

First of all, let me candidly acknowlege that Jesus is in fact the Creator spoken of in the Old Testament.

Now, let's unpack the verse which you have quoted. It should be noted first of all that you have quoted verbatim from the New International Version, or that the version you quoted from is a verbatim match for this version. Second, let us note the immediate context of the verse, and I call your attention to verses 24-25, which read:
"eye for eye, tooth for tooth, hand for hand, foot for foot, 25 burn for burn, wound for wound, bruise for bruise."

Next, let's take a look at the historic context: it was a time of lawlessness and unspeakable savagery and brutality. In laying down the law, God was doing a few things:
1. Limiting the savagery to being in kind: "eye for eye." At the time, there was no restraint upon the people of any sort, so limiting them to exact in kind justice was a step up. There was no sort of restraint expected in dealing with a slave, so the statement about punishing for death was a revolutionary one. That said, it should be noted that God was not attempting to save them from their sins, but to restrain their activities somewhat. In no way can it be said that the beating is encouraged - it is to be restrained.
2. The law was also to function as a schoolmaster to lead us to Christ. Those under the law received discipline, sometimes severe discipline, and a constant reminder of their sins. This served to wound the heart and soften it. How many men, after brutalizing a slave, committed some other sin which required a sacrifice? Can you imagine what must have occurred? An innocent lamb was slaughtered in order for that man to go free. After a time of this, the conscience must have begun stirring, especially if rabbinic teaching was occuring about the holiness of God and the sinfulness of man. Following several centuries of reminders of guilt, the Jewish people were prepared for the Messaiah. Amazingly enough, His Gospel was preached to the very slaves who suffered under the Old Testament law.

I probably have not done this passage the justice it deserves, but I can tell you that whenever any difficulty arises, if one is to be honest with the text, one MUST go looking for the answers and not rest with surface appearances, for to do so is the stuff of which cults, desertion from the faith and other sorrows are born. When confronted with something of this nature, the heart is exposed: those who trust God go looking for answers and will not rest until they are found; those who do not, or are predisposed or in some way loathe to do the work will abandon study and cry, "Aha! I knew it! It's all a bunch of bull..."

If this response has not cleared it up for you, email me and we can bat this around on a more personal basis.

Blessings!
Tom

2007-05-14 05:17:00 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

First of all, you make it sound like this is specific to women. Its not. Its to slaves.

Second of all, you have to understand that God isn't stupid. He understands that the world is a dynamic environment, and things change. So no, this rule no longer applies. Neither does the rule of circumcision, or not eating pork, or having to grow a beard or any of a dozen other things that were in the New Testament.

The conditions set forth in the world change over time. In this context, they were trapped in a desert and any lapse of protocol could have crushed the entire nation. Extreme circumstances call for extreme rules.

After the New Testament, things DID change, as much as you like to say they haven't. Jesus said many times that this was a New Covenant (what you specify above was a part of an old covenant). Jesus died for all men, owners and slaves alike, so that all would be covered and become children of God. To beat a woman or man now is to beat someone that Jesus himself gave his life to protect. He said himself to respect all life. If you want a more Christian concept of slavery go to the book of Philemon instead.

In a nutshell, it would be advisable to stop using Old Testament law to discredit Christianity. And no, Jesus was not born yet. God existed, true, but Jesus was inherently human, and to be human is to be born, so he was not yet Jesus. Everything in your argument is flawed.

2007-05-14 04:47:04 · answer #6 · answered by Tyrantula3 3 · 2 1

A wife is not a man's servant...she is a helpmate.
Helpmate -noun
1. a companion and helper.
2. a wife or husband.
3. anything that aids or assists, esp. regularly

The creation of man is introduced in Genesis 1:26, but the making of woman was preceded by the divine declaration: “...It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him an help meet for him” (Gen. 2:18). Nevertheless, the creation of woman is linked with that of man (Gen. 1:27), but the order of sequence is given in Genesis 2:18. The creation of woman formed a chronological incident in the history of the human race which commenced with the creation of Adam

2007-05-14 04:52:29 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

The LORD God said this to Moses. So Yes, Jesus is the Word of LORD God (Father, Word & Holy Spirit).

So, when a slave master beats his servant to death, he gets the death penalty. If the servant survives, then doesn't get the death penalty.

This is a harsh reality, but the Law came to Moses and also the consciquence of sin & death. Life for life.

But the Lord didn't say that a slave owner can beat his female slave. Nor did God encourage it. He said that the conscequences will happen if the slave owner beats his slave to death. There are conscequences to beat ones slave.
But this is the law & contract between the Lord God and Israel.
Truth & Mercy/Grace came by Jesus Christ, who bore our sins on the cross and died for us & raised from the dead for us. We are not under the law, but under Grace.

2007-05-14 04:49:58 · answer #8 · answered by t_a_m_i_l 6 · 1 2

Do you obey everything what Jesus has said? Or you only want to do wrong things? I doubt if this is witten originally in the Bible-or is written in subsequent issues?

2007-05-14 04:49:49 · answer #9 · answered by anil m 6 · 0 1

Old Testament is the most horrible fiction ever written.

There's no evidence for jesus, let alone the rods and poor women.

Only a sadistic bastard will practice such laws of bible.

New Testament is no better either, it tells you to kill the homosexuals and disobedient children.

Note:- You are not an idiot, you're honest!

2007-05-14 04:42:35 · answer #10 · answered by Honest christian 2 · 3 4

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