To JW's,why did Jesus never called God "Jehovah" before?

Question

To tyler

David is also "The begotten son" of God.Why did he never called God "Abba"?

To tattie_herbert

Answer to your question.

How do you know he did not?
How many times was the Bible stories translated?
What was the ORIGINAL language of the Bibles stories?
What is the translation of Jehovah in English?

1.Well,he never ever called God by any name except "Abba":Father or "Eloi":God"

2.Countless.

3.The original language of the OT was Hebrew.But a portion of the Book of Daniel was written in Aramaic.The Book of Ezra was also written in Aramaic.

The original language of the NT was Koine Greek.

Althought there are some scholar's insisted that the first manuscript was the Peshitta text.(Written in the Syriac/Aramaic language)

4.LORD.

Answer 1

Think of it this way do you call your father by his name? Okay so he called him Father out of respect for him, but while in his preaching work he did refer to him as Jehovah so wherever your getting that information from is very misguided.

Answer 2

Most of the answerers so far have said that Jesus called God "Jehovah." The problem is that there's no evidence of it. Maybe he did call him Jehovah, but such is speculation. The name is found nowhere in the new testament, including the Gospels. If the name, Jehovah, were originally in the new testament but was removed, we ought to be able to find at least SOME manuscripts that still have it, but there isn't a single one in thousands of copies. There's no manuscript evidence whatsoever that "Jehovah" was EVER in the new testament.

When Jesus read the prophecy in Isaiah, it is possible that he said "Jehovah," but not certain. By Jesus' time, it was common when reading aloud to say "Lord" in place of the divine name. If Jesus had pronounced the name, it likely would've caused a stir, but there's no evidence in the text that it did. Besides, Jesus could've been reading from the Aramaic pargums, and not from a Hebrew text. We can't assume that just because he read Isaiah that he pronounced the name. He may have, but we can't know that.

Answer 3

Before what?

While it is true that many believe Jesus never used his father's name (because it was removed from so many translations of the Christian Greek scriptures), nothing could be further from the truth.

In the first century, whether Jews read from the Greek Septuagint or the Hebrew scriptures, they would come across the name of God literally thousands of times. At Luke 4:18-20, as Jesus read the prophecy in Isaiah, Jehovah God's name appears twice. Jesus did not fail to use that name as he read those scriptures to the listeners in the synagogue. Of course, he did not say 'Jehovah' anymore than he called himself 'Jesus' inasmuch as both 'Jehovah' and 'Jesus' are the English pronunciations. He no doubt used the Hebrew pronunciation of his father's name, which is quite lost to us today.

It is of interest to note that no one uses the actual Hebrew pronunciation of Jesus' name either, even though it is well know. They simply use the pronunciation common in their language.

But that Jesus used his father's name, there is no doubt.

Hannah J Paul

Answer 4

How do you know he didn't?

It should be noted that none of the complete Biblical texts survived long after the Apostles were killed. This is why the Nicean Council met. They were told to gather all the remaining fragments of the scriptures and get the religion back in order. They did the best they could, but the entirety of Jesus' gospel was lost. We were left with pieces. This is why we have so many denominations today.

Answer 5

I don't know which bible you use, but

Matt 6:9,10
John 17:6, 26
Rev 3:12

Show how Jesus felt about the name of his God Jehovah.

(Matthew 22:37-38) 37 He said to him: “‘You must love Jehovah your God with your whole heart and with your whole soul and with your whole mind.’ 38 This is the greatest and first commandment.

Did you know the only 'trinity' mentioned in the bible is in reference to 'Baal' worship.

Harper’s Bible Dictionary

Baal / Bel ,

translates into English as Lord
offspring of El, (Hebrew for God)
worshiped as a triad / trinity.


Who promotes worship by saying "Believe in the Lord and you will be saved?"

Who has removed Jehovah's name from their bibles and added the title 'Lord'?

Who is fulfilling the prophecy at

(Jeremiah 23:27) 27 They are thinking of making my people forget my name by means of their dreams that they keep relating each one to the other, just as their fathers forgot my name by means of Ba′al.

Jesus loved the name of his God, and used it.

Answer 6

How do you know he did not?
How many times was the Bible stories translated?
What was the ORIGINAL language of the Bibles stories?
What is the translation of Jehovah in English?
Do some research!

Answer 7

Simple answer:

Because strictly speaking, that's not God's name.

And despite what tyler wrote, Jesus never referred to God as "Jehova." Jehova is actually a combination of the two hebrew words "YHWH" (God's personal name meaning "I Am") and "Adonai" (Hebrew for Lord). Because Jewish rabbis were afraid of using God's holy name improperly (YHWH believed to be pronounced today as Yahweh), they substituted in the word Adonai (Lord) whenever God's name came up so that they wouldn't break the 3rd Commandment accidentally. After many years of this practice the two words became one by inserting the vowels from Adonai into the consonants of God's name YHWH and you get YaHoWaH. In Latin YaHoWaH was spoken differently and the Y was pronounced as a J and that's where we get the word Jehovah from. So in reality, Jehovah isn't God's name, it's not anything but people use it anyway.

So to answer your question, Jesus would never have used the name Jehovah to refer to God because that word wasn't invented yet. But the truth of the matter is that Jesus always referred to God as His Father. Jesus only used God's holy name of "YHWH" or "Yahweh" to refer to Himself all those times He said "I am." An example is when people questioned Jesus and He said He knew Abraham. They asked how this was so since He couldn't possibly have lived that long ago. Jesus answered and said, "Before Abraham was, I am." He was using God's name to refer to Himself (which is perfectly alright since Jesus is God) and by doing this the Jewish people would immediately know what He was referring to. That's why they tried stoning Him so much.

I hope this answered your question and helps.

zerocool_12790

Answer 8

Hebrew = Yahweh (God)
Hebrew = Yashua (God's Son)

English = Jehovah (God)
English = Jesus (God's Son)

Mark 12:29 Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah.

Answer 9

Does the bible really contain every utterance of Jesus?

(John 20:30) Jesus performed many other signs also before the disciples, which are not written down in this scroll.

(John 21:25) There are, in fact, many other things also which Jesus did, which, if ever they were written in full detail, I suppose, the world itself could not contain the scrolls written.


In any event, Jehovah's Witnesses cannot help but note that the original manuscripts of the so-called "New Testament" have never been found. Of course, Jesus did not speak English, but Jesus, the apostles, and the other formerly Jewish "NT" bible writers must have used the Hebrew Tetragrammaton ("YHWH" or "Yehowah") in their speech and in their writings.

(John 17:26) [Jesus said] I have made your name known to them and will make it known, in order that the love with which you loved me may be in them

(Matthew 6:8,9) God your Father knows what things you are needing before ever you ask him. 9 “You must pray, then, this way: “‘Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified.


Think about it: Jesus and his apostles must have been extraordinarily familiar with the Hebrew Scriptures (the "Old Testament"), and the evidence is that they frequently quoted from these writings. The Hebrew Scriptures use the divine name SEVEN THOUSAND TIMES; would Jesus and his apostles have skipped over "Yahweh" or "Jehovah" when it appeared in the text they were quoting?

Perhaps the most revealing passage is to note the way that Jesus at Luke 4:18,19 quotes from Isaiah 61:1,2. Scholars universally concede that the passage in Isaiah uses the divine Name and even repeats that Name; Jesus and his audience all understood Hebrew and the scroll was almost certainly in Hebrew (although that is immaterial). Clearly, when Jesus actually read the Isaiah passage he would hardly have replaced his Father's personal name with a generic term (such as the corrupters of Luke's Gospel have done).

(Luke 4:16-21) [Jesus] entered into the synagogue, and he stood up to read. 17 So the scroll of the prophet Isaiah was handed him, and he opened the scroll and found the place where it was written: 18 “Jehovah’s spirit is upon me, because he anointed me to declare good news to the poor, he sent me forth to preach a release to the captives and a recovery of sight to the blind, to send the crushed ones away with a release, 19 to preach Jehovah’s acceptable year.” 20 With that he rolled up the scroll, handed it back to the attendant and sat down; and the eyes of all in the synagogue were intently fixed upon him. 21 Then he started to say to them: “Today this scripture that you just heard is fulfilled.”

(Isaiah 61:1,2) The spirit of the Sovereign Lord Jehovah is upon me, for the reason that Jehovah has anointed me to tell good news to the meek ones. He has sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to those taken captive and the wide opening of the eyes even to the prisoners; 2 to proclaim the year of goodwill on the part of Jehovah


As in Luke chapter 4, the New World Translation is quite careful to ONLY render the divine name when a verse or phrase in the Christian Greek (NT) Scriptures seems to quote or refer to a Hebrew (OT) Scripture with the divine Name. That is why the OT has almost 7000 occurences of "Jehovah" while the NT has less than 300.

Essentially, the New World Bible Translation Committee believed that it is preferable to err (if that is what they did) on the side of magnifying the divine name, rather than share in perpetuating a superstition that hides it.

The name "Jehovah" is an English translation of the Hebrew name pronounced as or similar to "Yahweh" or "Yehowah"; the exact original pronunciation is unknown. The four Hebrew characters corresponding to the letters "YHWH" are well-recognized as the biblical personal name of Almighty God, and are universally designated as "the Tetragrammaton" or "the Tetragram".

For centuries, most Jews have superstitiously refrained from pronouncing aloud any form of the divine Name. They base that superstition on the third of the Ten Commandments given to Moses:
(Exodus 20:7) You must not take up the name of Jehovah your God in a worthless way
http://watchtower.org/e/bible/ex/chapter_020.htm?bk=Ex;chp=20;vs=7;citation#bk7

Over the centuries, that Jewish superstition has expanded to also forbid writing or engraving any form of "YHWH", even when simply copying from one of the nearly 7000 occurences in the Hebrew Scriptures. In recent centuries, some superstitious Jews have even forbade unabbreviated EUPHEMISMS for "YHWH"; capitalized terms such as "Tetragrammaton" and (amazingly) even "the Name" are forbidden by such superstitions, and they even insist that "God" must be written as "G~d".

Naturally, the religious and superstitious practices of a person are between him and his Creator. However, in recent decades these superstitious Jews have worked to impose their superstitious sensibilities beyond their religious communities, and onto the entire populace. Thus, although "YHWH' is unanimously recognized as the personal name of God, few today use any form of it in their writings and conversation.

Interestingly, Christendom has largely joined with superstitious Jews in suppressing the use of "Yahweh" and "Jehovah". However, it seems that Christiandom's anti-YHWH bias largely devolves from their hatred of Jehovah's Witnesses, the religion almost single-handedly responsible for the growing public recognition that the Almighty God of Judaism and Christianity actually does have a personal name.

It seems that too many are more interested in coddling superstition than in allowing intellectual honesty and respect for the Almighty.

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/na/
http://watchtower.org/e/20040122/

Answer 10

Because that isn't God's name? Does that tell you anything if Jesus doesn't use the name?