Mat 27:46
And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
If this was Jesus, than why would he cry out by saying that, it's blasphamy (i.e. Sin).
Even if that is Jesus(pbuh):
Wouldn't this mean that Jesus is not god, since he's crying out for god.
So if it is Jesus, than that means he commited a sin
as we all know Jesus is sinless, so he wouldn't commit blasphamy.
if it is Jesus, and he was god like Christians say why would he be crying out for himself.
2007-05-13
11:49:56
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9 answers
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asked by
DBznut
4
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
You guys are totally missing the point.
telling god, why are you doing this to me, is blasphamy because, your questioning god.
2007-05-13
12:11:39 ·
update #1
I think you are confused by the Koran. It isn't a sin to call Father God, El. It isn't a sin to call Jesus Christ the Son of God. It only writes that in the Koran that this is such a big sin.
In the OT Psalm It is El, El, why have you forsaken me. Jesus is calling out to a singular part of God, Father God. It is written in the bible that Elohim is God the Creator. Elohim is plural of El.
This is also Jesus in His humanity (He is 100% human & 100% Word of God) that is crying out to God the Father as El. Jesus is the Word (El) of God (Elohim). Basically, Elohim broke for us, when Jesus bore our sins on the cross.
What sin is, is doing anything against the will of God. As humans we all have sinned & come short of Gods Glory. Even an innocent mistake can be a sin. We have all sinned somewhere. Since Jesus was born of a virgin (seed of the woman (Genesis 3:15), He was like the first Adam before the fall, in His humanity. He is body, soul & spirit. He didn't sin, even though tempted like us. That is the only reason He raised from the dead. Because the wages of sin is death. He is without sin & raised from the dead. So we can some day raise up also.
Jesus when He walked on this earth, he is an example of a human anointed with the Holy Spirit. His humanity is new 2000 yrs ago.
Before Abraham was, Jesus was as the Word of Elohim. God the Creator is LORD (Yahweh) Elohim; God the Father, Word & Holy Spirit.
The whole conflict of adding partners with Allah is that only in the Koran is this a sin worthy of hell.
God the Creator is the LORD God (Yahweh Elohim). God the Father, Word & Holy Spirit. After Jesus ascended to the right hand of God in His resurrected body, God is the Father, Word/Son & Holy Spirit.
2007-05-13 12:05:38
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answer #1
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answered by LottaLou 7
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My Friend.
Jesus was both man and God. at the time when the price for the sins of man was to be paid. The God part of Jesus could not be present. He cannot be in the same place as sin any more than light can exist in darkness. Jesus knew this in the garden of Gethsemane ( I probably spelled that wrong) and asked his Father to release him from this "if it be possible, take this cup from me. Your will and not mine be done", it seems very odd to me that we all dont listen to God any more, it could be that since the release of the holy spirit at pentecost, we have been bombarded by both good and bad spirit and that our reception has been muddied. It seems that way,, and well it is biblical all the way through that good and bad must be balanced that we might have an opportunity to choose for ourselves. I do know that if you really question God. and in the name of Jesus the Christ you do so, you will find the answer.
In His grip. For my son
Warrior_Father
2007-05-13 20:08:43
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Jesus is God. God came to the earth in human form (His Son Jesus) to be like us. Jesus became our sin and God the Father did forsake Him (our sin) to let Him die instead of us in order to take our sins away from us in death. So that we won't die if we accept Jesus as our Lord and Savior.
2 Corinthians 5:21, God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
There is God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit. All three are God but different persons.
I believe that Jesus quoted Psalm 22 to fulfill scripture. Some of the prophecy Jesus could fulfill and some of it God had to cause to happen.
Look at the prophecy of Judas accepting 30 pieces of silver. That, God had to make happen. And my question-----Since Satan knew that the 30 pieces of silver was already recorded, why couldn't he change the amount to 29 or 31? It is because God is in controll.......
2007-05-13 19:01:04
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answer #3
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answered by 4HIM- Christians love 7
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For a brief moment God the Father took away His presence from Christ. This was so that Christ can fully suffer as a man before his death.
At the ninth hour Christ uttered that anguished cry, “ ‘My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?’ ” [Matt. 27:46] “In that bitterest hour the dying Christ was alone. [So] that the supreme sacrifice of the Son might be consummated in all its fulness, the Father seems to have withdrawn … His immediate Presence, leaving to the Savior of men the glory of complete victory over the forces of sin and death” (ibid., p. 661).
Later, “realizing that He was no longer forsaken, but that His atoning sacrifice had been accepted by the Father, and that His mission in the flesh had been carried to glorious consummation, He exclaimed in a loud voice of holy triumph: ‘It is finished.’ In reverence, resignation, and relief, He addressed the Father saying: ‘Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit.’ He bowed His head, and voluntarily gave up His life”
2007-05-13 19:04:41
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answer #4
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answered by Bubblewrap 4
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You gotta know, that in the garden of Gethsemane, where Jesus was arrested, he was in the garden TAKING IN THE SIN OF ALL BELIEVERS, PAST, PRESENT, AND FUTURE! Now we know that Jesus knew that the Father cannot look upon sin, but imagine how it would feel to be abandoned by your father in your most trying time in your life(and even then, its no comparison to what He went through). And Jesus is Part of the Trinity, the father is separate, but they are of the same....essence.(when he say "I and the father are one" he used the Greek word neuter which means one thing, not person). On top of that, he was here to SHOW us how to have a right relationship with the father by example.
2007-05-13 19:02:47
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answer #5
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answered by resdogg 2
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"My God, My GOd, ...." Jesus is just quoting Psalm 22 from the Old testament. Which means that he is fullfilling the prophecy. The Psalm is about deliverance from God through suffering. Christians believe that the one true God is a TRINITY. WHich means that GOd Is the father, son, and holy spirit.
Then God (singular) said, "Let Us (plural/trinity) make man in Our image, according to Our likeness..." Gen. 1:26
2007-05-13 18:52:50
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Firstly it's not blasphamy to "cry out" to God.
Also this is another example that Jesus was not God but the Son.
2007-05-13 19:00:56
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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To the two answerers above which I gave thumb up each: This is my follow up question: Why was it necessary for Jesus to quote in Psalm 22? Was he quoting it just to fulfill the prophecy or was it out of pain and frustration?
Edit:
I think 4HIM already answered my question. He became our sin to die on the cross which make sense why God forsake him. Thanks a lot to the asker and the answerers. I learned a lot.
2007-05-13 19:03:31
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answer #8
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answered by Frontal Lobe 4
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He was quoting psalm 22.
It was written thousands of years before his death and resurrection.
2007-05-13 18:53:52
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answer #9
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answered by Bye Bye 6
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