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Since it would be 1/(ax) times a

so that'd make 1/x right?

2007-05-12 12:23:45 · 4 answers · asked by adklsjfklsdj 6 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

absolutely,

d/dx[ln(ax)]
1/ax * d/dx[ax]
1/ax * a
1/x

2007-05-12 12:26:46 · answer #1 · answered by eirikir 2 · 2 0

another way of looking at this is:
ln(ax) = ln(a) + ln(x)
ln(a) is a constant and its derivative is hence 0

so when you take the derivative, only the ln(x) term counts.

sometimes you get useful results when you do the reverse:
integral 1/x is ln(abs(x)) + c
there are a few instances when moving the c into the ln gives you better expressions, especially if you need to take e to the on both sides.

2007-05-12 12:35:10 · answer #2 · answered by astatine 5 · 1 0

Yes. An easier way is to right ln ax=ln x + ln a
ln a is a constant.
d/dx ln x=1/x
d/dx ln a=0 so d/dx ln ax=1/x

2007-05-12 13:59:21 · answer #3 · answered by yupchagee 7 · 0 0

Yes, you are correct.

2007-05-12 12:26:54 · answer #4 · answered by bruinfan 7 · 0 0

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