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I know many people believe that the creative days in Genesis were each 24 hours long. However is there an example in the writings of Moses in which he uses the exact same word and it is clear that he meant "an indefinite period of time." This definition of "day" is often used in our modern vocabulary, but how long has it been used in this way?

2007-05-11 13:57:35 · 21 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

21 answers

2 Peter 3:8 - “But forget not this one thing, beloved, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.”

Doesn’t this passage indicate that the “days” of Genesis could have been “thousands of years” in duration, rather than twenty-four hours?

2007-05-11 14:12:14 · answer #1 · answered by )0( Cricket Song 4 · 3 0

Good question. The words "yom" and "day" seem to be used very similarly, but fluent speakers of a language can decipher meaning by the context. For example, if I said, "Back in Grandpa's day, it took five days to get to New York, even if we rode all day," you should be able to tell that the first "day" simply means "time" or "era" and is indefinite, the second "day" refers to a 24-hour period, and the third "day" simply means the lighted portion of that 24-hour period. Therefore, there are clues as to the meaning of "day" or "yom" in the scriptures. Let's start with some passages in Genesis 1 that deal with the days. Gen. 1:5 says "And there was evening, and there was morning—the first day." There are two clues here that explain what type of day we have: a description, evening and morning, and a number, first. The description seems obvious, but every time the Bible modifies "day" with a number, it means a 24-hour period. Genesis 1:8, 13, 23, and 31 all say the same thing. Exodus 20:8-11 says the same thing. Why would God ask us to work for six thousand years or for six indefinite time periods and then rest for one thousand years or one indefinite time period? In Joshua 6:2-5, wouldn't it be silly for the Israelites to march around Jericho for six thousand years or so, and then another thousand years more before blowing the trumpets? Then why is it not silly to assign an indefinite time period to the Six Days of Creation? Truth is, most people don't care because they scoff at any hint of creation. Christians, Jews, and Muslims who follow scriptures that detail a creation account should care, and should examine all the details carefully.

2016-04-01 07:25:48 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

This could get long and messy, but I'll try to be brief.

I don't think that was a question at all to the audience that originally received the story. They did not live in a very scientifically advanced world and likely didn't care about such questions. I think it is entirely possible that it was more than one actual day or something. My faith would not be shaken in God or the Bible if such a thing turned out to be true.

If you want to try to dispute or affirm the truth of the Bible then go to a more meaty passage or use actual principles of logic to analyze the text rather than proof texting (where you take one verse or passage out of context and use it to prove your point). Both believers and dissenters use proof texting and it usually runs along the lines of something like:

Psalm 8 talks about the "paths of the sea" long before such things were known about so that proves the Bible is scientifically accurate. Dissenters will point to things like Genesis talking about light and darkness before the sun was made.

These questions are invalid--it's like looking at the newspaper and criticizing it because it doesn't tell you how to program your DVD player--it is not made to do that and the Bible isn't made to address scientific questions.

2007-05-11 14:07:59 · answer #3 · answered by bizriak 3 · 3 1

.I think in this part it does mean a 24 hours period, because in chapter 1 verse 5 it reads "And the evening and the morning were the first day. In other parts of the bible it is talking about time in prophecy.

2007-05-11 14:49:29 · answer #4 · answered by Proud Pa 2 · 0 0

Day and night are different than 24 hours. Day (light) and night (darkness) Gen. 1 definition. Matter of fact, Christ death was about 39 hours even though his death was 3 nights and 3 days; assuming 6:00 PM sunset and 6:00 AM sunrise.

2007-05-11 14:24:54 · answer #5 · answered by jefferyspringer57@sbcglobal.net 7 · 1 0

Australian Abourigionals (sorry about the spelling) use vague terms like day, night, rains to denote time. For example, a persons age is not recorded but ask them when they were bork and the answer would be "in the summer time" or similar. They have many examples of oral history going back over 10000 years and no written language!

Cant help you with the bible thing - sorry

2007-05-11 14:08:34 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

we don't know the real answer to this riddle..it could mean any thing as their were no clocks or calendars at this time..its just like when you fall asleep..sometimes time is not relevant .


but the latest poll says that 86 % of the people in the United States still believe in God..so I think most of the other 14 % must be here on Yahoo! questions and answers. as every other question seem to be about God and religion..After 2000 years of Chris inanity we still ask the same basic questions....interesting.

2007-05-11 14:03:47 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

the great thing about the bible is that you can make it say anything you want.
pick a theory,any one will do,then shape it to suit your argument
when you get a bit bogged down chuck in a few phrases like"God moves in mysterious ways ", or ,"its gods will "and there you have it.
blind faith is a handy thing to have. it saves having to think too much.
if you believe in god then you must also accept that he is the most vindictive and murderous being that has ever existed, as all things are within his remit.
there is little point swooning over a beautiful sunset sent to us by god if the next day the same god allows a bomb to smash lives to pulp in an underground train.

2007-05-11 14:47:16 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

.
Metaphorical days
In the Bible, as a way to describe that time is immaterial to God, one day is described as being like one thousand years (Psalm 90:4, 2 Peter 3:8) to him. Also in 2 Peter 3:8, one thousand years is described as being like one day. However, some Bible experts interpret this more literally as a way to understand some prophecies like those in Book of Daniel and others (like the Book of Revelation) where are mentioned days in form of weeks and years.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Day
.

2007-05-11 14:13:18 · answer #9 · answered by de v 2 · 3 1

Per scripture:

2Pe 3:8 But stop letting this one [fact] be forgotten [or, ignored] by you*, beloved, that one day with [the] Lord [is] as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. [see Psalm 90:4] (Analytical Literal Translation)

So more than possible.

2007-05-11 14:19:28 · answer #10 · answered by Toe the line 6 · 2 1

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