did God allow incest for that time only?
2007-05-11 05:17:36 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The only way to really answer this question is to look at Cain's wife. The Bible does not specifically say who Cain’s wife was. The only possible answer was that Cain's wife was his sister or niece or great-niece, etc. The Bible does not say how old Cain was when he killed Abel (Genesis 4:8). Since they were both farmers, they were likely both full-grown adults, possibly with families of their own. Adam and Eve had surely had more children than just Cain and Abel at the time Abel was killed - they definitely had many more children later (Genesis 5:4). The fact that Cain was scared for his own life after he killed Abel (Genesis 4:14) indicates that there were likely many other children and perhaps even grandchildren or great-grandchildren of Adam and Eve at that time. Cain's wife (Genesis 4:17) was a daughter or granddaughter of Adam and Eve.
Since Adam and Eve were the first (and only) human beings, their children would have no other choice than to intermarry. God did not forbid inter-family marriage until much later when there was enough people that intermarriage was not necessary (Leviticus 18:6-18). The reason that incest often results in genetic abnormalities in children is that when two people of similar genetics (i.e. a brother and sister) have children – genetic defects are far more likely to result because both parents had the same defects themselves. When people from different families have children – it is highly unlikely that both parents will have the same genetic defects. The human genetic code has become increasingly “polluted” over the centuries as genetic defects are multiplied, amplified, and passed down from generation to generation. Adam and Eve did not have any genetic defects, so that enabled them and the first few generations of their descendants to have a far greater quality of health than we do now. Adam and Eve’s children had few, if any, genetic defects. As a result, it was safe for them to intermarry. It may seem strange or even disgusting to think of Cain's wife being his sister. In the beginning, since God started with one man and one woman, the second generation would have no choice but to intermarry amongst themselves.
There is plenty of scientific evidence to back-up the genetic theory both secular and non-secular. www.answersingenesis.com
2007-05-11 05:47:14 · answer #1 · answered by Justice 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
marriage and sex, within the family, wasn't banned by God, until the exodus from Egypt, when God gave the law to Moses. Before then, Cain did marry his sister, and other sisters (maybe some cousins too), but I believe back then, it was all about a man taking a woman into his family. Caring for her, and protecting her. The better provider you were, the more wives you had. But, that was only for a short period of time.
2007-05-11 05:24:37 · answer #2 · answered by LENZ 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Adam's first spouse, Lilith, have been given Adam dissatisfied by fact she grow to be too bossy. He mandatory a smash until eventually God made Eve, who grow to be lots greater subservient and for that reason greater to Adam's liking. They left those issues out of the present bible.
2016-10-15 09:25:47 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The discovery of Mitochondrial DNA has completely disproved the Biblical story of Adam and Eve.
2007-05-11 05:32:47 · answer #4 · answered by reverendrichie 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, they did hook up. No, that was not the only time. For many generations after that (Cain and Abel, for example) people would have been having incestuous relationships, or at least relationships with their rather close relatives.
2007-05-11 05:24:11 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes thay did.
But there was one other time with Lot. He was the one who escaped Sodom and Gomorrah. You know his wife turned to salt. Well, he had 2 daughters who thought they should get his blood line going. So they both got him drunk and had sex with him. Not sure about God "allowing" this.
I know -Ick!
†
2007-05-11 05:25:25 · answer #6 · answered by Jeanmarie 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Brace yourself for a lot of literalist excuses, like "incest wasn't detrimental then". An excuse with no backing (Biblical or otherwise) whatsoever.
2007-05-11 05:22:55 · answer #7 · answered by Scott M 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No according to tradition God created others, they just aren't mentioned in the bible.
2007-05-11 05:28:09 · answer #8 · answered by John L 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course they did how else would it work? The difference from then to now is that their gene pool was still perfect with out any mutations. So you did not have the problems you have to day.
2007-05-11 05:23:57 · answer #9 · answered by spchedder 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Are you asking the fundies this, as they are the only ones dumb enough to not realise that its just classic mythology written to teach a deep meaning about the human conciousness
2007-05-11 05:22:15 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋