It is expressly allowed in Lev 25 as long as they are purchased from neighboring countries (would Canadian or Mexican slaves be better?)
2007-05-11 01:08:34 · 23 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Ya know, i asked the same question in 7th grade when i was at a Christian private school, and they were teaching us how homosexuality and bisexuality and sex outside of marriage were all wrong. No one could answer the question directly then either. I was sent to the office...
some things can not be easily explained, especially hypocracy within a belief system.
2007-05-11 01:17:32 · answer #1 · answered by willodrgn 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Employers> and employees who knowingly on the Sabbath are missing out on The Blessing of The Sabbath. Necessary services such as police, fire, medical are regarded as help services. When a person ignores The Sabbath and just lays around all day sat or parties hardy instead of observing The Sabbath; they are knowingly doing that for which they know is wrong. How does one deal with the greed of the employer who demands that everyone works on Sabbath but closes the business on sun day so he can golf??? Such a life style is known to be against nature; there is no reason that certain laws need to be changed/created. The needs of the few should not dictate the needs of the many. There are so many laws on the books now that a person can stand still and be doing something wrong!! The ceremonial Sabbaths where nailed to the cross since they where part of the sacrificial system. The 7th Day Sabbath has been The Sabbath Day of worship for all mankind since the week of creation.
2016-05-20 03:42:40 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This would be a fair and intelligent question if it were true that Christian's singlehandedly did away with slavery. You may not have added this up, but quite a few of the people who went to war to keep slavery were Christian.
As far as legal oppression of gays, can you cite an example of a law currently on the books somewhere in America which makes it ok to oppress or in some way discriminate against a person based on their sexual orientation?
2007-05-11 01:19:43 · answer #3 · answered by ? 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Real Christians know that the Old Law is for "our learning". It is not to rule our lives. The New Testament is our guide to living and following Jesus Christ to get to Heaven. Hopefully this makes some sense. I do not believe thatLeviticus is the only reference. I might suggest the New Testament, Paul's writings were pretty clear about it also. Have a great weekend.
Thank you,
Eds
Giovanni,
Augustine was a Catholic and I do not believe him to be saintly. His writings are from man not GOD. I am a Non-Denominational Christian who believes the Bible. I read, study, and obey it's commands and attempt to keep away from the whims of man that change as the winds do. I believe that you are mistaken in your response. I will research it a little further.
Thanks
2007-05-11 01:18:52 · answer #4 · answered by Eds 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Owning slaves was acceptable in the New Testament as well, as long as they were treated well! But it also says to obey the laws of your country, and as that is now illegal, don't do it.
Really, only those who are keeping the whole Levitical law, including 'love your neighbour as yourself', can say anything about slaves/gays/smoking etc., and normally when they do they aren't loving the person they're talking about so are bringing judgement on themselves.
2007-05-11 01:20:47 · answer #5 · answered by claude 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
First of all, they are talking about non-Isrealites in Leviticus, not literally people from a different land (not that it really matters a whole lot :p).
The New Testament DOES condemn homosexuality.
Romans 1:26
Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones.
Romans 1:27
In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their
Sorry, but the Bible condemns homosexuality in both books (not just homosexual pedophilia, as one poster claims).
2007-05-11 01:29:57 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Some typical responses:
First, "slavery is wrong, too". These people aren't even bad Christians. They've never read the Bible. Slavery is encouraged in the Old Testament. Slavery is endorsed by Paul, multiple times, in the New Testament.
Second, "that's Old Testament". Well, surprise, surprise! The New Testament doesn't prohibit homosexuality. Paul expressly condemns "cadamites". What are cadamites? The little boys that pedophiles abuse, not the pedophiles themselves.
Here you see the beginnings of Christian morality. Blame the victim. Jesus "saves" the sick and twisted abuser. (This type of logic was carried forward by St. Augustine who said that women are to blame for all cases of rape. He even went so far as to say that the "sin" of rape, was that she might enjoy it.)
Christianity is twisted. Thanks, Balaam, for pointing that out.
2007-05-11 01:18:37 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 3⤋
Slaves?,, Wise A$$
2007-05-11 01:28:00 · answer #8 · answered by done 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I've actually heard of other verses from the New Testament in that regard. Not many believers I know of quote Levitical law.
2007-05-11 01:12:22 · answer #9 · answered by Rob 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
There were some gays in the Bible.
However God made man and woman to be a pair.
As far as slaves...well, if you are willing to go through what Herod went through...i am sure you read his story?!! If not, then you may want to catch up...
After all, you never know "who" God is going to send to "release" his people from your hold.
2007-05-11 01:16:35 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋