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If there are two integers a and b such that (b/2) < a < b, then a³ > b².

can u explain it also?? i don't understand it.

2007-05-10 15:06:38 · 3 answers · asked by Getroman 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

This can be disproved by counter example.

Let
a = 2
b = 3
b/2 = 3/2

So b/2 < a < b

a³ = 2³ = 8
b² = 3² = 9

a³ < b²

So the statement if false.

2007-05-10 15:33:43 · answer #1 · answered by Northstar 7 · 0 0

b is always bigger than a

but the thing is that when A is cubed, or A * A * A, it is more than B squared, or B * B. That is why it is showing that B divided by 2 is smaller than A, and A is smaller than B just normally. So technically A and B are close answers to any coordinates on the coordinate plane

2007-05-10 15:12:52 · answer #2 · answered by Harshil 2 · 0 1

(b/2) < a < b, then a³ > b². False

We already know that
b > a from the first statement and a, b are integers.
if we take cubes on both sides
b^3 > a^3 for positive integers.

So a^3 > b^3 is false

2007-05-10 15:11:43 · answer #3 · answered by looikk 4 · 0 2

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