2007-05-10 13:21:23 · 18 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
50%
2007-05-10 13:24:17 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Fun question.
I suppose one-half of everything - good and the bad would be nothing when it's all measured out.
But considering God whose goodness is without limit is also in that equation, one-half of everything is one-half of limitless good.
2007-05-10 20:31:40 · answer #2 · answered by E 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The equivalent to half of everything else ^^
2007-05-10 20:41:46 · answer #3 · answered by Le Petit Fleur 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If everthing is finite than one half would be half of X. If everything is infinite then half of everything is still infinite.
2007-05-10 22:42:23 · answer #4 · answered by Michael 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
One half of everything is the exact half of the everthing.
It is that simple *smile*
2007-05-10 20:25:00 · answer #5 · answered by clcalifornia 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What's the value of everything?
2007-05-10 20:59:33 · answer #6 · answered by shmux 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Income tax
2007-05-10 20:25:39 · answer #7 · answered by freebird 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
one half of nothing
2007-05-10 20:28:33 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
More than even Bill Gates has. Pax - C
2007-05-10 20:24:57 · answer #9 · answered by Persiphone_Hellecat 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
My half.
2007-05-10 22:14:58 · answer #10 · answered by The Phat Whale 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋