Sorry to everyone but the answer is ZERO, but not by balks, read on.
8.04
When the bases are unoccupied, the pitcher shall deliver the ball to the batter within 12 seconds after he receives the ball. Each time the pitcher delays the game by violating this rule, the umpire shall call “Ball.” The 12-second timing starts when the pitcher is in possession of the ball and the batter is in the box, alert to the pitcher. The timing stops when the pitcher releases the ball.
The intent of this rule is to avoid unnecessary delays. The umpire shall insist that the catcher return the ball promptly to the pitcher, and that the pitcher take his position on the rubber promptly. Obvious delay by the pitcher should instantly be penalized by the umpire.
Thus by delay of game the pitcher can put a batter on base without a pitch then pick the runner off. You cannot put a batter on base with a balk, but zero is technically the correct answer.
2007-05-10 06:00:45
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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The batter is never awarded first base on a balk.
But your friend is right that the answer is zero. If a batter switches from one box to another while the pitcher is in position and ready to pitch, he is out. Don't expect a team this stupid to appear in any level of play anytime soon, though.
A couple of notes to dispel misconceptions about the rules:
(1) Not coming to a stop in the set position is only one type of balk; answers here are saying it's the only type of balk
(2) A no-hitter, and thus a perfect game, requires the pitcher to pitch nine innings at a minimum. Rain-shortened games can never be no-hitters, per commissioner's office rule
(3) Although a "ball" is to be awarded to a batter when the pitcher fails to deliver a pitch, no umpire would allow the pitcher to continue willfully violating the rule -- the pitcher would be ejected long before the ninth inning.
2007-05-10 06:23:06
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answer #2
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answered by Ryan R 6
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You can't balk a player to 1st base. A balk occurs when there is a runner on base and the pitcher doesn't come to a complete stop during his delivery.
So the answer is 18. Eighteen times the batter comes up and is out after swinging at the first pitch and hitting into a put-out. As the 7th inning starts, it begins to rain as if it was the days of Noah. The rain continues for the next 8 hours, never letting up. The game is an official game. Answer 18.
This almost happened this year with the Cleveland Indians and Seattle Mariners in April with Paul Byrd pitching. He was one strike away from ending the 6th inning hurling a no-hitter, but the snow came down so hard Mike Hargrove (Mgr of Seattle) came out and asked for a snow delay. The snow never stopped that night, and the game was cancelled, but had he gotten that last pitch in and the snow did the exact same thing, he'd have pitched a no-hitter. (Needless to say, he was very ticked off at Hargrove).
Your buddy could have argued that with 18 first pitch HIT BY PITCH and awarded first base, with 18 subsequent pickoffs...but the answer is still 18, no matter how you slice it.
PS: Can you believe some of the stupid answers these guys above wrote??? I am LMAO at them!
Thanks for the 10 pts!!
2007-05-10 03:24:50
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answer #3
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answered by royride 2
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The answer is NOT anything less than 27. You have to pitch at least 9 innings for it to be an official no-hitter.
A few years ago, a pitcher for the visiting team threw 8 hitless innings, but lost 1-0, therefore not pitching the 9th inning. It DID NOT go in the books as a no hitter. Nor does pitching anything less than 9 innings go in the books as a complete game.
You must get 27 outs, and therefore must throw 27 pitches.
2007-05-10 05:29:52
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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A COMPLETE GAME, not rain shortened, would be 24 by a home team pitcher with a lead in the game going into the ninth therefore the pitcher would not have to pitch the bottom of the inning. 3 pitches an inning, 8 innings, equals 24 pitches
2007-05-10 04:43:03
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answer #5
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answered by doboll 1
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8 innings x 3 pitches (one consistent with out) = 24 9th inning interest dropping living house run on first pitch of inning. 25 pitches for an entire interest not all finished video games are gained by making use of the pitcher.
2017-01-09 14:21:48
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Just to be different - 15!
1 pitch per batter for 5 innings. Game is then called because of rain. The game is official after 5 innings, the pitcher gets the win, the no hitter and the complete game.
The official rule for a complete game:
4.10
(a) A regulation game consists of nine innings, unless extended because of a tie score, or shortened (1) because the home team needs none of its half of the ninth inning or only a fraction of it, or (2) because the umpire calls the game. EXCEPTION: National Association leagues may adopt a rule providing that one or both games of a doubleheader shall be seven innings in length. In such games, any of these rules applying to the ninth inning shall apply to the seventh inning.
(b) If the score is tied after nine completed innings play shall continue until (1) the visiting team has scored more total runs than the home team at the end of a completed inning, or (2) the home team scores the winning run in an uncompleted inning.
(c) If a game is called, it is a regulation game:
(1) If five innings have been completed;
(2) If the home team has scored more runs in four or four and a fraction half-innings than the visiting team has scored in five completed half-innings;
(3) If the home team scores one or more runs in its half of the fifth inning to tie the score.
(d) If a regulation game is called with the score tied, it shall become a suspended game. See Rule 4.12.
(e) If a game is called before it has become a regulation game, the umpire shall declare it “No Game.”
(f) Rain checks will not be honored for any regulation or suspended game which has progressed to or beyond a point of play described in 4.10(c)
2007-05-10 03:47:57
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answer #7
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answered by Seano 4
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Your friend is not correct, but if you really analyze it, neither are the rest of the posters so far. However when it comes to the minimum actual number of pitches thrown for a complete game, no hitter - considering at least 1 pitch per batter faced - then it essentially could be 25.
If you are the visiting team, and you hit the first batter therefore giving him first base, he could somehow get to third base on a tag up w/ a throwing error, or something similar. Therefore leaving him on 3rd base w/ 1 out (and total of 2 pitches thrown). When you hit a batter, the pitch is still consider a "pitch thrown" in the tally, however and HBP does not count as an at bat for the hitter. If the next batter grounds out, but the runner scores, then there are 2 outs and the home team is winning 1-0. If you proceed to throw 1 pitch to each of the remaning batters for the rest of the game, and get them all out on 1 pitch, you could have thrown 25 total pitches, for a complete game, no hitter, and still lose becuase the home team would not need last ups in the bottom of the 9th.
Seeing how your question did not state that you had to WIN, just pitch a complete game, no hitter....then the correct answer is 25.
2007-05-10 03:26:49
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answer #8
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answered by JiggaWhat?!JiggaWho?! 2
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15
2007-05-10 05:42:02
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answer #9
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answered by mike5454542002 2
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Why is everyone basing their numbers on a nine-inning game, when you only need five innings for a game to be official? In that scenario, you'd only need to face 15 hitters to get what would still be considered a no-hitter.
As for your friend and his balk idea, he has no idea what he's talking about. Buy him a rule book, and show him that it is NOT possible, in any way, to "balk" a guy to first base.
So, in a five-inning scenario, you'd need one pitch per batter, which would mean 15 pitches.
2007-05-10 03:50:25
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answer #10
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answered by Craig S 7
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