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Even in german the word Gott is not neutrum.

Why do people regard masculine God?

2007-05-09 18:01:12 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

14 answers

Judaism seems God as above all anthropomorphic personofications. God is genderless and has no human form at all.

The Jewish scriptures are written in hebrew. In hebrew, their is NO gender neutral pronoun, every word has a gender and the conjugations of adjectives differ according to the gender of the noun they are attached to.

For example: He sits would be "Hu yoshev", she sits would be "Hi yoshevet". In both cases the root made up of the letters yud shin vav is present, but it is modified according to the gender.

Another example: He walked- "Hu halach", she walked "Hi halchah", In this case the root with the letters hey lamed chet is modified by the genders.

Since this is the case, when a mixed group is being addressed the masculine is used as gender neutral, and the same for anything in which the sex is indeterminate or irrelevant; unless the word is explicitly feminine you use the masculine as gender neutral

2007-05-11 00:43:43 · answer #1 · answered by allonyoav 7 · 0 0

In Judaism the Hebrew phrase for G-d is male whilst speaking approximately *grammatical gender.* This does NOT imply that G-d is conceived as male. We don't do not forget G-d human, and it's immaterial to talk of G-d's gender. At the equal time, each and every noun in Hebrew is both masculine or female (like in Spanish or French, for instance).

2016-09-05 13:43:03 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

The other answers are missing the grammatical point. The Bible (mine, anyway--I'm Jewish) was written in Hebrew. The Hebrew language has no neutral gender; there is no "it", neutral gender. Thus, all nouns are either masculine or feminine, just like in French. A book in Hebrew is masculine, and will take a masculine adjective even though no one thinks of the book as "he". The words for G-d in Hebrew, by and large, are also masculine, although there are notable exceptions (such as shechinah, which is feminine). Hence, G-d is referred to as "He" when doing a translation. This begs the question of whether or not the writers of the Bible (whomever you choose to believe wrote it) considered G-d to be masculine, independent of the limitations of Hebrew grammar.

2007-05-09 21:22:17 · answer #3 · answered by Mark S, JPAA 7 · 1 0

In the name of Allah the most Gracious the most Merciful

In Islam we only speak of the creator with what He the almighty has revealed of Himself [may he be glorified and exalted ]

Allah describes himself in the Quran sura 112,last verse
meaning ''there is nothing co equal or comparable unto Him''
which means God almighty is unique , and we cannot attribute
a gender to him.God almighty has no gender.!

The Reason God is mentioned in the Quran as a He is
because in the Arabic language there is no word for neutral
gender as in English we have male female and Neuter
gender .But in Arabic it is only male and female gender.Hence the translation into English suggests a male
gender otherwise Islam says that God almighty is unique
and has no gender.
''

2007-05-09 19:06:01 · answer #4 · answered by sonu 5 · 0 0

Not all monotheists believe so, I was taught by a Catholic priest that God has no gender and has both masculine and feminine qualities, the masculine qualities are quite prevelant while the feminine qualities can be found in the book of wisdom, it's just that the feminine has been placed in the backburners

2007-05-09 18:54:32 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Even today, this male centeredness exists. I recall a good Catholic being disgusted that a girl was portraying Jesus. Of course, one might ask why a Catholic priest can not be a woman. Many parishes still don't allow alter girls. And I am sure that many other churches can only have male ministers. Also you have the church of the Clintons', (I don't believe they actually follow of course,) the Southern Baptists hold that the wife is a servant to a husband. And of course let's go beyond the Christian faith and ask why women can not show their face in the fundamental circles of Islam.

As to why, I can only draw upon my own experience as I grew up with many of these ignorant notions myself. It was the world that was there for me to learn. So I think it just gets engraved into the minds of developing children. It has been carried throughout the generations. The scriptures were written by men and to men. You mustn't covet thy neighbor's WIFE. Looking at a WOMAN with lust is committing adultery with her. Of course women sinned big time but the scriptures assume they are talking to men. But women were stoned to death for have sex out of wedlock, but I never heard what they did with the men.

To woman, I guess you've come a long way baby, but you have a ways to go. Keep fighting. Just don't hurt us.

2007-05-09 19:14:34 · answer #6 · answered by Mr. Bodhisattva 6 · 0 1

I can't speak for xtianity but In Judaism (& I believe in Islam as well) G-d is formless and genderless. One cannot go by linguistic conventions but recognizing those conventions can help of to throw out our own mental idols.

"HaShem" for example only means "The Name." Sometimes there are so called "feminine" images of G-d as well but they ultimately represent a similar problem.

2007-05-10 08:32:25 · answer #7 · answered by extrafriendlyfire 3 · 0 0

The simple answer, and one alot of people wont like, is that alot of ORGANIZED religions were set up ina time when male were socialogiclly viewed as superior to women, and meant to rule. As such, in order to generate this view deeper, they made their God's men. Alot of pagan and Native religions are more lineient on the issue because to them, there is equality in aspect.

2007-05-09 18:55:45 · answer #8 · answered by D 1 · 1 1

To answer the question, why I believe that God is a male, is very simple. To do so we must turn to scripture for this reason. The bible says

2Ti 3:16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

If all scripture is what is profitable for all of doctrine, as the Bible says we must use it, and the bible always refers to God as He, never as she.

2007-05-09 19:12:16 · answer #9 · answered by PreacherP 2 · 0 1

Because calling God an IT is quite unseemly.

2007-05-09 18:53:12 · answer #10 · answered by great gig in the sky 7 · 0 0

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