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And could they change it?

I ask because I was looking at a children's Bible one day and to my shock it used the word "Homosexual" (which in my opinion, does not belong in a children's book and furthermore was not even a word until the last century).

How many different "versions" of the Bible exist in print?

2007-05-09 12:37:04 · 15 answers · asked by rabble rouser 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

I just think that most Christians (whom I have been wrong about before) would not want their kids dealing with the gay debate until they are old enough to understand it...
Isn't that what Al Queda does? Teaches their kids to hate before they know who they are hating?

Anyway - aside from that - there is still some debate as to what was meant in the translation... in my grandmother's bible it says "men who consort with men" which is far more broad a category then homosexual...
And sodomite means a person from Sodom... which would include Lott's Wife... who was obviously not homosexual.

2007-05-09 12:58:24 · update #1

15 answers

"Homosexual" is an English word. You are looking at a translation. The Greek or Hebrew original could very well have had a word or phrase in it that the translator chose to render as "homosexual", but other translators might disagree on the exact choice of words.

That is the problem of translation. Differences between languages cause problems because of different word orders, syntax, ambiguous declensions, idioms and other things that don't translate easily. Bible translations that are the most literal are hard to read. Translations that are easy to read in the new language are less literal.

The "originals" are themselves copies of older, manual copies, and they don't all quite agree. So scholars have to decide how much weight to give to the age, condition, history, resemblance to other copies and other factors in determining which readings are most correct. And scholars don't all agree either.

There are hundreds of translations in English alone, of more rigorous academic effort, or less. The credentials and methods of the person or people translating determine how respected among the experts a particular translation is, but theoretically, anyone could produce a "translation". Whether it "sells" or not is up to the public.

When Jerome was asked to translate the Bible into Latin (since no one in Rome spoke Greek anymore), he resisted, saying people would hate the results because they would be used to an earlier version. But he did, and they did hate it. But a hundred years later, it became THE Bible for the next thousand years, even when no one spoke Latin anymore. The Roman Church forbade translations precisely because of the disputes in interpretation it would cause. But dissidents began to accuse the Church of sitting on the Bible and preventing it from being available to the people. They secured some copies of Greek manuscripts and cobbled together a new Greek edition. From that, they made Latin, German and English translation. Once the cat was loose, the Church made a translation (from the Latin) and competing Bibles were coming out in England every few years. Some differences were simple translator preferences and others were the result of differences in the "sources". They've been fighting about them ever since.

Joseph Smith made a re-translation of the King James Bible, despite his lack of academic credentials. The Mormons largely ignore it. The Jehovah's Witnesses produced the New World Translation, but only Jehovah's Witnesses use it. The success of any particular translation is not guaranteed.

2007-05-09 13:06:17 · answer #1 · answered by skepsis 7 · 1 0

Yes any one can publish a copy of the bible if they have the resources to do so. Yes they can change it, and they have. Childrens bibles are extreemly changed and simplified. I'm not sure how many diffrent versions exist but I own over 6 difrent ones. the King James is the oldest english translation I think, and its the one I use. Alot of people use the NIV, but they have modernised the languge so it may not be so good. I have a dead seas scrolls one and a few childrens ones, and an NIV with the jesus words in red, and a king james with jeaus words in red.

2007-05-09 12:51:48 · answer #2 · answered by Aztrik 3 · 1 0

You have two issues here. The word "sodomy" in our language is not a reference to citizens of a bygone city, but to the evil practices in which they engaged. Lot and his family were foreigners that settled there, and the male sodomites tried to rape him and his angelic visitors.

Now, using appropriate words for the greek and hebrew originials is left to translators who must find the exact meaning, but convey meaningfully to his intended audience. Perhaps a child would not understand homosexual, so that would not be a topic for discussion. Maybe a child's bible could use different wording, but the Bible condemns the practice. It is not "hate" nor is it teaching hate to teach that some behaviors are not right before God. If I tell you adultery is wrong, or stealing is wrong, I am not teaching hatred, I am teaching morality. Christians do not want to practice evil and this includes doing evil to evildoers. We welcome the sinner into church, and we say what God says. If they want God, they repent of their sin. If they want unnatural sex and to lust for thier own gender, they will not repent, and will begin to call those that disagree, "haters." It's really ridiculous.

As for Bibles, anyone could publish a bible, just like anyone could publish the Declaration Of Independance, but if it is tampered with, it will be rejected by the Church, and received only by the cults or those trying to make the Bible say what it does not.

2007-05-09 13:14:20 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Quite a few translations, a lot are not in english..
If you don't like homosexual, it is sodomite in the King James. Why can't they use the word homosexual?? It clearly describes people that are homosexual and is the word that is used today instead of sodomite.

2007-05-09 12:47:22 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

There are hundreds, and possibly thousands, of versions of the bible, not all still in print. Any version that came out before 1920 is public domain, and you can use it in any way you see fit. Any version after that is under copyright, and cannot be reprinted nor altered without permission of the copyright owner.

2007-05-09 12:47:33 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The answer is TOO many.More than 100.
The NIV emasculates Jesus and makes him look like a wimp
Other versions use "modern phraseology" that doesn't do the original languages any justice ( or provide any accuracy)

Stick with the King James.
Surprisingly, it is the easiest to memorize.Makes you wonder why.

2007-05-09 12:47:44 · answer #6 · answered by watcherd 4 · 1 0

A PBS software stated as "Civilization - The West and something" became into on Tuesday night. i think of the guy pronounced China has printed 70 million Bibles and 50 million of them have been in chinese language. additionally there is extra advantageous than one hundred,000 million Christians in China.

2016-10-15 05:47:49 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Even with the current draconian copyright laws, copyright is... what... 95 years? 70 years after the author's death? something like that?

The bible is in the public domain. Publish your own version (on paper or online), change whatever you want, knock yourself out.

2007-05-09 12:42:33 · answer #8 · answered by eldad9 6 · 4 0

I think the Bible is in public domain, and therefore anyone can change it to suit themselves. Do you think homosexuals will go away if you don't write about them? Don't you think kids should be prepared for the advances that will be made to them in most cities when they become teenagers?

2007-05-09 12:48:10 · answer #9 · answered by Davie 5 · 0 2

There is no copyright on the bible. Anyone can publish any part of it in any form or translation desired, which tells you the quality level of this tome.

2007-05-09 12:43:12 · answer #10 · answered by nora22000 7 · 6 0

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