Churches say sex should be used only for reproduction purposes. If one of the spouses is sterile should the couple give up sex due to the reproductive impossibility?
2007-05-09 01:04:33 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Thats not true...what they say is it should be kept in the bonds of ordained marriage between a husband and a wife...the reproduction thing is more catholic dogma
2007-05-09 01:14:59 · answer #1 · answered by Robert K 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I don't know where in the Bible it says that sex is for reproduction only. It seems that any church that says that is making man-made doctrine that doesn't seem to be inspired by scripture.
God made sex enjoyable for a reason! Within the confines of marriage, sex should be enjoyed - not to be seen as some sterile, purposeful act.
2007-05-09 02:38:47 · answer #2 · answered by TWWK 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Church forbids using beginning administration meant to stay away from being pregnant. it truly is no longer the comparable element as somebody who's sterile by using no fault of their very own. The marital intercourse act is and unitive. The Church recognizes the income of intercourse and intimacy for a pair's relationship. That that's an expression of affection and an act of sharing. all of us understand from the Bible that God can and does provide in the previous sterile couples toddlers, even of their previous age. no longer something is previous God's purposes, so that's completely ideal for the priest to ask God to bless the couple with toddlers. beginning administration used to purposely make the intercourse act sterile so as that a pair could have intercourse yet no longer toddlers is an completely distinctive element. maximum of non-Catholics, and a few Catholics, misunderstand the prohibition against beginning administration to intend that couples can purely have intercourse so as to create a new child. it truly is only no longer authentic. The Church purely says that's faulty to have intercourse and purposefully sterilize the act by using man made ability so as to stay away from a new child. This of course would not persist with to barren ladies, infertile men, placed up-menopausal ladies, or people who've develop into sterile for scientific motives. In each and every of those circumstances no person has purposefully acted to stay away from being pregnant. The sin is interior the reason.
2016-12-17 08:07:53 · answer #3 · answered by unck 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know what "churches" you are referring to, but the teaching of the Catholic Church is that sexual union has TWO essential purposes - unitive and procreative, and that sexual union must be open to BOTH purposes. Using sex "only for reproduction purposes" would be just as disordered as using sex only for pleasure.
2007-05-09 01:37:44 · answer #4 · answered by PaulCyp 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
sweetie you need to get in church before you try to say what the church says. The purpose for sex is to reproduce, but once you are married you can have sex anytime you'd like.
If one partner is sterile prayer works. It is just another trial.
2007-05-09 01:16:15 · answer #5 · answered by Krista 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Another joke is that marriage is all about procreation. I know christians who got married well past their child-bearing years, yet christians were not up in arms about that. Does the word hypocrite ring a bell.
2007-05-09 04:27:59 · answer #6 · answered by Fred 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The bible doesn't teach that sex is only for reproduction.
2007-05-09 01:39:46 · answer #7 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Krista was correct and sensible in her anser until she said," If one partner is sterile prayer works."
Prayer does NOT work. You can only keep trying. Eventually, you might have to adopt.
2007-05-09 01:26:59 · answer #8 · answered by TarKettle 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I don't know what churches you are talking about, but that is not true in the Catholic Church.
2007-05-09 01:18:34 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
What churches say this? I don't know of any.
2007-05-09 01:13:18 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋