John 14:23 (New International Version)
Jesus replied, "If anyone loves me, he will obey my teaching. My Father will love him, and we will come to him and make our home with him
2007-05-07 15:51:00 · 5 answers · asked by rapturefuture 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Yes - Jesus is God.
John 8:24 I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I AM, ye shall die in your sins. (cf. Exodus 3:14)
And Thomas answered and said unto him (i.e. JESUS), MY LORD and MY GOD. John 20:28
1 John 5:7
For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
2007-05-07 16:01:34 · answer #1 · answered by Brian 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What Jesus spoke in this verse would have been blasphemy if it were not true, that he is God for the Jews would have stoned him for this statement. Though it is not a Trinitarian verse, it does place Jesus as being equal with the Father. There are enough verses that state each person of the God Head as being God and yet the scriptures are very clear that there is only one God. "According to Christianity, the doctrine of the Trinity teaches that within the Unity of the one Deity there are three separate persons who are coequal in power, nature and eternity. (Tri-un; 1x1x1=1, Not Tri-plex; 1+1+1=3) This quote is from Dr. Walter Martin Blessings, Virgil
2007-05-07 23:46:22 · answer #2 · answered by ok4me2you 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
KJV says
23 Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.
I would stick with the KJV. THe further down the translation list you get, the further from the actual words that were spoken. This is saying that if you follow the commandments, then the Lord will accompany you (The Holy Ghost will be with you). Since the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost are one in purpose, then you will feel their presence). The Trinity however is a flawed doctrine. The Father and the Son are distinct beings.
2007-05-07 23:00:02 · answer #3 · answered by BigOnDrums 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Several years ago I cataloged 43 instances where John's Gospel referred to the divinity of Christ. This passage is not among the list I made. While it is an explicit "Son of God" reference, that does not alone constitute a claim to his deity.
... As I consider the question, it seems to make a weak case for the claim based on "WE" making our home with the believer.
Bigondrums: If you want to get "closer to the original words" LEARN THE LANGUAGE! It will give you a MUCH better idea of the meaning than the kjv with its MANY DELIBERATE MISTRANSLATIONS, ALTERATIONS or ADDITIONS to the text.
2007-05-07 23:05:51 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would say that it is describing two different people coming to dwell with the man so it could be interpreted as a trinitarian verse
2007-05-07 23:00:10 · answer #5 · answered by astral_lds 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋