1) At last , he is going to love her.
2) Eventually, he is going to love her.
3) In the end, he is going to love her.
4) In time, he is going to love her.
5) Sooner or later, he is going to love her.
Are these the same meaning? which one refers to the farest in the future time and which one is the nearest to present. Thanks alot
2007-05-07 01:35:55 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
The first one is different; the others are more or less the same.
The first one means that he has been not loving her for a long time, but now, very soon, he will.
The others all mean that he doesn't love her yet but in the future he will.
I would say in order from likely soonest to likely farthest in the future:
sooner or later
in time
eventually
in the end
Note that "in the end" is a bit different as well, since the others don't say that once he does start loving her, he'll never stop, but "in the end" does imply that.
A final point: I find "is going to" somewhat odd with all of these; "will" would sound better to me. I'm not sure why, but probably because it's an internal change, not some authority making it so (one hopes).
2007-05-07 01:51:24 · answer #1 · answered by Goddess of Grammar 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In my opinion (some of this is obviously subjective), "At last, he is going to love her" is the closest, and "In time, he is going to love her" is the furthest away. I believe "In time" is further away than "In the end" because time has no end, and therefore, the time before he loves her could be indefinite.
2007-05-07 08:50:19 · answer #2 · answered by Alisha H 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
At last is the closest
in the end is the furtherest
2007-05-07 08:44:22 · answer #3 · answered by skipper 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋