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If your answer is yes, please explain 1Cor 7:12

2007-05-05 16:29:35 · 42 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.

That is the verse. I'm asking those who say everything in the bible is the word of God to explain this verse. Don't ask ME to explain it.

2007-05-05 16:37:27 · update #1

42 answers

You are bringing up what appears to be a contradiction. On the one hand Christians believe the Bible is the Word of God. On the other hand, one Bible author gives advice which comes from himself and not from God. How to reconcile this apparent contradiction?

It helps to understand what Christians mean by the Word of God. The Word contains the words of saints and sinners, of men and devils. Although it quotes sinners and devils, it is the Word of God simply because God wanted those words preserved for us to read.

We believe Paul was inspired to write what he wrote in his epistle. When it came to actual advice in this particular matter, Paul shared what advice he thought was best, just as countless other biblical characters, right and wrong, said what was on their hearts.

Paul was confident that He had the mind of the Lord in the matter he was discussing, although he could not give the advice as a commandment because he did not receive it as such from the Lord. His teaching on this topic is like a corollary, like he's saying, "We know what the Lord's commandment is on Subject A. Based on that, we can apply it to Subject B in this way ..."

2007-05-05 17:43:22 · answer #1 · answered by Steve Husting 4 · 0 0

HI Evan,
Paul wrote, In 1 Cor 7:6 But I speak this by permission, and not of commandment. ....
1Cor 7:12 But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.

Paul felt that the husband of a Non-Christian Wife should NOT divorce her if she chose to stay with him. That was Paul's belief, as he said and not GOD's.

This shows us that NOT everything in the Bible is only GOD's Word. Have a great evening.
Thank you,
Eds, Christian

2007-05-05 16:38:48 · answer #2 · answered by Eds 7 · 0 0

If you look at a "red letter edition" of the Bible you will see all of God/Jesus's actual words marked in red. The rest of the scriptures are called the "Inspired Word of God', because the diciples and prophets wrote what they felt they were lead to write, as directed by the Lord.
Since there were Jews, Hebrews, Greeks, Romans, etc. it made it easier for those people to understand better, in their own languages. That is most evident it the Gospels of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John. They all tell the same story but each one tells it in his language and understanding, giving it a slightly different eye witness account.
Jesus taught and authorized his diciples, to act and teach, in His behalf, therefore I Cor 7:12 is a proper statement authorized by Jesus. Notice the writer is quick to inform you this is his "learned" opinion not a direct quote from the Lord.
Hope this helps you. God Loves You and so do I.

2007-05-05 16:54:32 · answer #3 · answered by Great Grandma 3 · 0 0

Paul's command about the permanence of marriage comes from the old testament (Genesis 2:24) and from Jesus (Mark 10:2-12). His suggestion in this verse is based on God's command, and Paul applies it to the situation the Corinthians were facing. Paul ranked the command above the suggestion because one is an eternal principle while the other is a specific application. Nevertheless, for people in similar situations. Paul's suggestion is the best advice they will get. Paul was a man of God, an apostle, and he had the mind of Christ (born of the Holy Spirit of God).

2007-05-05 17:06:36 · answer #4 · answered by TIAT 6 · 0 0

No,there are many interpolations,fortunately fairly easy to recognize. I don't know the quote you reference off-hand; I don't believe in that approach to scripture. Since it isn't necessarily accurate down to the letter I see no need to go chapter and verse and treat it like common law. It is not a legal treatise. I do believe that taken as a whole it captures the essence of Christ's teaching,which is the essential. I don't fall into the trap of not being able to see the forest for the trees. Officially,now thats another story,all denominations take the view that every word is divinely inspired,and ministers are expected to uphold that. But it's a different picture at a grass-roots level,so to speak.

2007-05-05 16:37:51 · answer #5 · answered by Galahad 7 · 0 0

Paul is giving counsel to husbands regarding their new conversion to Christianity.
That if their wives agree to live with their husbands, then the husband has certain responsibilities as a Christian that needs to be meet so they can continue to have a good relationship with God.
Paul is dealing with men who under their old faith would have abandoned their families.
So Paul is using reason coupled with logic to help men understand they are more than the bread winners, they are head of a spiritual household and need to act according.
Since the Apostle Paul was under the influence of Holy Spirit when he wrote the book of Corinthians we can trust the fact that this comment too is included in 2 Timothy 3:16, 17

2007-05-05 16:41:12 · answer #6 · answered by Here I Am 7 · 0 0

No, everything in the Bible is not the whole word of God. It was written by man. And, on top of that, it has been rewritten and translated over and over again. Have you ever tried to translate one language from another? Well, I have, and it never says the same thing as it did with the original. On top of that, Christians made up that "God is all knowing" stuff. He's not all knowing, that was a Greek belief that they used with their gods. And Christian leaders (Catholics) decided to use it for their own. Most people don't know that though, I just recently learned about it in my world religions class...it didn't surprise me either. I am constantly finding out new things that discredit all of organized religion.

2007-05-05 16:42:01 · answer #7 · answered by Lo 2 · 0 1

It means exactly what it says, that the section that follows is Paul's opinion. The Bible accurately records what God wants us to know about him and his relationship with us. In the course of that, it records rapes, murders, lies that people told, false prophecies given by false prophets, etc. Those things are included because they are needed to understand the events happening, or to see the consequences of the wrong actions.

The reason for this particular opinion being included is apparent when you read the section. Paul is dealing with the subject of what a person should do if they are married to an unbelieveing spouse. You know as well as I do that every such situation is unique. So a blanket statement that says "always stay with your spouse" would leave many women in abusive and dangerous situation, while an equally generalize statement of "always leave your spouse" would break up marriages that would have worked out, and prevented spouses from being saved by their mates, had they stayed together.

So Paul says, "my opinion is that you try to work it out, try to stay together, and hope that you can reach your mate, BUT if it is obvious that it is not working, you are not obligated to stay in the situation." Having given us his opinion, he then does give us the "word" from God about what to do. "God calls us to live in peace." That is a guideline to use in making such decisions.

So, yes, it is "the Word of God", in that it is what He wants us to know about how to handle marriages with unbelievers. But it is expressed through Paul's judgment, rather than a hard, fixed rule because this is a situation that calls for judgment not a hard, fixed rule.

2007-05-05 16:46:49 · answer #8 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0 0

That's a good one! Very well then, it is still the inspired Word of God. That verse is like all the greetings and salutations, where it seems to have just a message to some and not to all... A-ha! Nice discovery to confound the wise with :)

If Paul had to differentiate that, then is he saying: that the other scriptures are the inspired Word of God, most assuredly :)

2007-05-05 16:36:17 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Yes, it is the inspired word of God, but God didn't dictate it word for word to the people who wrote it. That's why there are mistakes and it shouldn't be taken literally. As for 1Cor 7:12, I know that Paul wrote it but I'd need the text to answer it specifically and I'm not looking it up.

2007-05-05 16:33:10 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

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