2007-05-05 11:30:35 · 7 answers · asked by Slave M 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I am sure He was quite happy.
2007-05-05 11:39:38 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
During the time of Jesus, there was no such thing as a 'gay' man. The concept did not exist. And so did many 'modern' concepts
Males would and could get very chummy and penetration was common, especially as an act of war, to 'de-masculine' the enemy.
The concept of pedophilia did not exist, girls were married or deflowered as young as eleven years old. It is commonly believed [of course, this is open to debate] that Mary was about 14 years old when she conceived Christ. A boy became a man at age thirteen and many warriors had their first taste of blood and loss of virginity around fifteen if not earlier.
The special relationship between John and Jesus is often looked at as a possible 'gay' relationship. In the east, two men leaning on each other, holding hands, or even kissing is no big deal, and it was common. It really doesn't signify a 'political modern-day' statement like he was 'gay' .
Jesus apparently had a lot of sex appeal because all sorts of men and women were attracted to him.
My point is: would it make a difference to me if Jesus was well, not 'celibate'... I don't think it would take anything away from his teaching. He didn't spread hate.
2007-05-05 20:39:42 · answer #2 · answered by krishna 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes he was quite happy, and was very tolerant of homo's.
2007-05-05 11:54:23 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No.
Stirring the pot, are you?
2007-05-05 11:40:32 · answer #4 · answered by Deof Movestofca 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
who knows??? he may have been.
2007-05-05 11:41:23 · answer #5 · answered by alberto k 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
No. Why, are you?
2007-05-05 12:04:45 · answer #6 · answered by Darryl L 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
NO
2007-05-05 11:40:35 · answer #7 · answered by Eye of Innocence 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋