Because the Bible does not condemn homosexuality. Leviticus was written around the time of the Babylonian Captivity, at a time when the Jews were beginning to differentiate Baal Yahwei from the other 'baalim' of ancient Palestine. Most of the unusual laws found in the Torah were religious practices that had crept into Judaism from the surrounding faiths. Homosexual prostitution, for example, was a staple of ancient Palestinian religion, and so is forbidden by the Law. The New Testament follows suit, but also condemns female homosexual prostitution, which was common among the orgiastic cults of ancient Lebanon.
2007-05-05 07:36:07
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answer #1
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answered by NONAME 7
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You must remember that during the time that the men wrote the bible, women were considered little more than the property of men, second class citizens. There is evidence to this throughout the entire bible.
2007-05-05 07:34:00
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answer #2
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answered by ndmagicman 7
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When the bible uses the word mankind or man, that means both men and women. You gotta read between the lines.
2007-05-05 07:29:55
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answer #3
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answered by lost.in.love 4
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In the old testament, woman were not counted, they were considered to be animals, like cattle. Only adult males were counted so they would know how big their armies were. Men were womans "husbandly" owners and keepers - called animal husbandry. Only men were 'in the land of the living", so Laws were made for men to follow.
2007-05-05 07:38:29
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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I think it has to do with the 'women as subordinates/property' attitude of the era, and as such they would not have been free to engage in such activity if it was their desire to 'Lay with a woman'
but I do believe it says something about a woman not offering herself to the livestock, so its possible Leviticus is more about acts of penetration and the 'casting of seed' then attractions and desires
2007-05-05 07:35:10
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answer #5
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answered by janssen411 6
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Well, back then I guess since it was termed that woman should not lay with anyone but her husband it kind of took care of it if you believe in all the bible says.
2007-05-05 07:46:37
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answer #6
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answered by Star 5
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in the bible, they always say "mankind" or "man". they didnt really count women as people. but i think the rules applied to them too.
2007-05-05 07:30:49
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answer #7
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answered by tovahh. 2
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because gay men don't fill women with babies who will become new farmers/soldiers.
women are property. even if they do find other women to be with, they will still be owned by men who will fill them up with babies, so you don't need to worry about tribe size there.
2007-05-05 07:41:20
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answer #8
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answered by eldad9 6
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who cares what the bible says?
Now, where are those 2 chicks together??
2007-05-05 07:31:42
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answer #9
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answered by ? 6
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because bible has been changed.
2007-05-05 07:30:45
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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