God said to the woman that " your desire will be to your husband but he will rule over you."
2007-05-05 07:00:22 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It means we love a good lay.
2007-05-05 07:02:49 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
The word that is used here is the same word that is used to describe how sin tries to dominate. It speaks of how the woman will, now by her fallen nature, try to have authority over the man.
Lots of people do not want to know this, and fight against this plain and honest understanding, but there it is.
So, putting it together with a loose paraphrase, your desire to dominate will be towards your husband, but he will rule over you.
It fits perfectly with the context of the rest of the verse.
2007-05-05 15:36:43 · answer #2 · answered by Jed 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If someone is not aware of Hebrew parallelism, this verse seems to say FOUR different things. But when that particular type of writing is involved, it is actually saying TWO things, each repeated (in different words) once. The first part deals with sorrow and pain. The second deals with her relationship to her husband. In the case of an impasse, the woman is to give up her wishes to her husband's. So, if they plan to go on a holiday to Europe with the husband's choice being Spain but the wife's choice is France, if they cannot come to an agreement, then her desire will be given up in preference to her husband's. So this year, they go to Spain (and next year they go to France?).
2007-05-05 14:21:49 · answer #3 · answered by flandargo 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It means she will desire to have the upper hand, and rule over her husband.
2007-05-05 14:04:29 · answer #4 · answered by singwritelaugh 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It means exactly what is says. I can break it down into the Hebrew if you like, but it is translated perfectly.
2007-05-05 14:05:49 · answer #5 · answered by Bye Bye 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋