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I'm shocked when I read "Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom." Mat 16:28

What does it mean?

John 21:22 Jesus saith unto him, If I will that he tarry till I come, what is that to thee? follow thou me.

Is Apostle John still alive til now?

2007-05-05 06:23:17 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

#Yes. John will remain alive until the 2nd coming. This is confirmed in an account given in the Book of Mormon when Christ visited people on the American continent.

Then where is he now?

"when Christ visited people on the American continent." You meant Lord Jesus has come, and will come again?

2007-05-05 06:49:26 · update #1

10 answers

There were those standing there when Jesus said that ..and some of those that were standing there did get to see Christ in His transfigured state. That is what He was referring to

2007-05-05 06:30:04 · answer #1 · answered by biblestudent07 3 · 0 1

Yes. John will remain alive until the 2nd coming. This is confirmed in an account given in the Book of Mormon when Christ visited people on the American continent.

2007-05-05 06:42:52 · answer #2 · answered by Bryan Kingsford 5 · 0 0

No.
The first passage refers to the Transfiguration on Tabor. In the three synoptic Gospels, Jesus says that some will not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in his kingdom. In all three Gospels this statement is immediately followed by the Transfiguration, in which the apostles did see the Son of Man in his kingdom.
As for the verse in John, Jesus was illustrating a point. He did not imply, in any way, that John would still be alive at the end of the age. Jesus predicted Peter's violent death, and Peter responded, "Well, what about John?" Jesus answered, "If he never dies, what's it to you? You just worry about yourself."

2007-05-05 06:33:46 · answer #3 · answered by NONAME 7 · 0 1

Look at the next verse in John 21...
Then this saying went out among the brethren that this disciple would not die. Yet Jesus did not say to him that he would not die...

It means that John would not die until he sees the end of Revelation from the eternal perspective (ie time not being a barrier). This prophecy was fulfilled when John wrote the following...

Re 19:11
Now I saw heaven opened, and behold, a white horse. And He who sat on him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness He judges and makes war.

2007-05-05 06:27:24 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Jesus said his disciples would love him more than their closest associates and family on earth. And even more than themselves. They must love their christian fellow disciples .
They must bear spiritual fruitage.
One who wants to be a disciple has to take up his torture stake and continually follow the path that Christ traveled. He must say that he is willing to endure persecutions with everlasting life in view.
Some of the little flock are still alive but John is long since dead. The bible says no man may live to 1000 years. Christ died 2000 years ago.

2007-05-05 07:44:39 · answer #5 · answered by debbie2243 7 · 0 0

Hm-mm....I think Churches exist because there are still disciples who follow HIM.

Jesus was only seen as a criminal by the narrow-minded pharisees who saw HIM as a threat to their interpretation of Sacred Scripture. Pilate and Herod denied he had done anything wrong.
Beyond that wrong assumption, Frog, I think you should try using a spell-check.

2007-05-05 14:49:56 · answer #6 · answered by extraordinarywomenoffaith 2 · 0 0

Either you don't know your Bible or you don't know English.

Let's take the second statement first. Did Jesus say that He will cause John to be alive until He returns? No. Did you see that little word, "If"? If I want to jump off the roof, I will. But do I want to do that? No.

As for you first point, there is a principle of Biblical interpretation that says to take a text in its context, and to consider all other similar passages to get a better picture of what is under discussion. So, here are the three passages together:

Mat 16:28 Verily I say unto you, there are some of them that stand here, who shall in no wise taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom.

Mar 9:1 And he said unto them, Verily I say unto you, There are some here of them that stand by, who shall in no wise taste of death, till they see the kingdom of God come with power.

Luk 9:27 But I tell you of a truth, There are some of them that stand here, who shall in no wise taste of death, till they see the kingdom of God.

So, what do you understand "the Son of man coming in his kingdom" to mean? At first reading, most people would think that that means the second coming of Jesus. The major Bible commentators do not think so, though. Here's what two of them have to say.

Adam Clarke : "There be some - which shall not taste of death - This verse seems to confirm the above explanation, as our Lord evidently speaks of the establishment of the Christian Church after the day of pentecost, and its final triumph after the destruction of the Jewish polity; as if he had said, “Some of you, my disciples, shall continue to live until these things take place.” The destruction of Jerusalem, and the Jewish economy, which our Lord here predicts, took place about forty-three years after this: and some of the persons now with him doubtless survived that period, and witnessed the extension of the Messiah’s kingdom; and our Lord told them these things before, that when they came to pass they might be confirmed in the faith, and expect an exact fulfillment of all the other promises and prophecies which concerned the extension and support of the kingdom of Christ.
To his kingdom, or in his kingdom. Instead of βασιλεια, kingdom, four MSS., later Syriac, Coptic, Ethiopic, Saxon, and one copy of the Itala, with several of the primitive fathers, read δοξη, glory: and to this is added, του πατρος αυτου, of his Father, by three MSS. and the versions mentioned before. This makes the passage a little more conformable to the passage already quoted from Daniel; and it must appear, very clearly, that the whole passage speaks not of a future judgment, but of the destruction of the Jewish polity, and the glorious spread of Christianity in the earth, by the preaching of Christ crucified by the apostles and their immediate successors in the Christian Church."

Matthew Henry : "(2.) The near approach of his kingdom in this world, v. 28. It was so near, that there were some attending him who should live to see it. As Simeon was assured that he should not see death till he had seen the Lord's Christ come in the flesh; so some here are assured that they shall not taste death (death is a sensible thing, its terrors are seen, its bitterness is tasted) till they had seen the Lord's Christ coming in his kingdom. At the end of time, he shall come in his Father's glory; but now, in the fulness of time, he was to come in his own kingdom, his mediatorial kingdom. Some little specimen was given of his glory a few days after this, in his transfiguration (Mat_17:1); then he tried his robes. But this points at Christ's coming by the pouring out of his Spirit, the planting of the gospel church, the destruction of Jerusalem, and the taking away of the place and nation of the Jews, who were the most bitter enemies to Christianity. Here was the Son of man coming in his kingdom. Many then present lived to see it, particularly John, who lived till after the destruction of Jerusalem, and saw Christianity planted in the world."

2007-05-05 07:01:56 · answer #7 · answered by flandargo 5 · 0 0

No. But we can be and should be His people and disciples. We can spread His word, and be a disciple. Not quite the same as in the old days, but we are being servants of God by loving & spreading His word!

2007-05-05 06:27:25 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Jesus was a Criminal to the new world an was delta with as such just as he would be today. ignorant an gullible people make him out to be something he wasn't

2007-05-05 06:32:29 · answer #9 · answered by the oz 2 · 0 2

Yes...They call themselves pastors, priest, popes etc.

2007-05-05 06:27:25 · answer #10 · answered by Afi 7 · 0 1

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