English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I understand that there was a time when if a man was naturlized his wife and children were automatically naturilized. One of my gggrandfather's died in a yellow fever epidemic shortly after arriving in this country. Information indicates they came in through the Port of New Orleans in 1853.. If my gggrandmother remarried someone who was already a citizen would she at that time be considered a citizen?

2007-05-04 12:36:00 · 2 answers · asked by Shirley T 7 in Arts & Humanities Genealogy

2 answers

I know this question because I had a great grandmother born in this country in 1875. 15 years later (1890) she married a man born in Germany. She actually lost her citizenship for 15 years until he was naturalized in 1905.

Women and children were assumed to be the familial property of their husbands until Sept 1906 in the US. When a woman married, her citizenship was that of her husband. When they traveled abroad, they traveled under his passport. Her rights were an extension of his rights. That's why the later censuses recorded both place of birth and naturalization status.

So the long answer to your short question is that your gggrandmother would have become an American citizen the second she said "I do" to an American man. Even if he predeceased her, she would have remained an American citizen until marrying again.

2007-05-04 14:50:29 · answer #1 · answered by GenevievesMom 7 · 1 0

Hey Shirley,

That is a great question, and I do not know the answer. Perhaps you can consult with the US Immigration department, they should be able to answer that question.

2007-05-04 20:24:56 · answer #2 · answered by BuyTheSeaProperty 7 · 2 1

fedest.com, questions and answers