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Gen 17:1 – I AM the Almighty God.. , Exo 3:6, etc
I AM is used ONLY for ONE PERSON and NOT THREE PERSONS. Using "I AM" for three persons or for a group of people is wrong grammar. what do you think?

2007-05-04 11:16:13 · 30 answers · asked by trustdell1 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Mark1011,

You said "WHO SAID THERE WERE.... THREE?..YET... In the Essence of the ONE GOD.... there is the Ability to Reveal HIMSELF.... as three distinct persons!"

Notice you said THREE distinct persons, you don't call THREE PERSONS "himself", nor use "I AM" nor "I ALONE' those terms are used for ONE PERSON only.

2007-05-04 11:31:19 · update #1

30 answers

Let me attempt to reason with the reasonable ones who know the Bible and do not blindly follow “traditions of men”. Naturally, blind followers of tradition will not hear the truth and continue to believe what they are told without reason. So, let the rest of us now reason from the Scriptures.

Jesus taught that whoever is not for him is against him. He also taught that followers of “traditions of men” are against him. He said that many would *claim* to follow him but be false, and that there would be very few true Christians on the narrow road. Matthew 7:13-23

!f you have some Bible knowledge you probably know who Nimrod is. If you do not then it would be beneficial for you to study the Bible before believing any “traditions of men” your local pastor tells you to believe.

Nimrod was the leader who constructed the tower of Babel shortly after the flood of Noah’s time. Together with his son Tammuz and mother Semiramis, they were the first ever trinity god. Do a net search for ‘Nimrod pagan trinity’ and you will see for yourself. This trinity god continued to be a “tradition of men” and morphed over the centuries into other trinities of false gods. The Romans had their own trinity passed down from the Greeks. When the Roman government took control of the church in 325 A.D. they imposed all of their pagan “traditions of men” onto the early Christian congregation and created a new religion.
This unholy marriage of government and religion is describe at
2 Thessalonians 2:3 and Revelation 17:1, 2, please read them

1. Exodus 3:14
“I SHALL PROVE TO BE WHAT I SHALL PROVE TO BE.” Heb., ´Eh·yeh´ ´Asher´ ´Eh·yeh´, God’s own self-designation; Leeser, “I WILL BE THAT I WILL BE”; Rotherham, “I Will Become whatsoever I please.” Gr., E·go´ ei·mi ho on, “I am The Being,” or, “I am The Existing One”; Lat., e´go sum qui sum, “I am Who I am.” ´Eh·yeh´ comes from the Heb. verb ha·yah´, “become; prove to be.” Here ´Eh·yeh´ is in the imperfect state, first person sing., meaning “I shall become”; or, “I shall prove to be.” The reference here is not to God’s self-existence but to what he has in mind to become toward others.

John 8:58
prin A·bra·am´ ge·ne´sthai e·go´ ei·mi

The Greek translation of the Hebrew Scripture at Exodus 3:14 has God describing himself as “E·go´ ei·mi ho on” meaning “I am The Being,” or, “I am The Existing One”
The Greek words used to record Jesus’ words are “e·go´ ei·mi” meaning simply “I am” as in ‘I am hungry’ or ‘I am here’. He did *not* say “E·go´ ei·mi ho on”

2. John 1:1 in most Bibles reads "in the beginning was the word and the word was with god and the word was god" but if you get a book on ancient Koine Greek which John 1:1 was written in, you will see that John used two different words for each "god" in that verse and a more precise translation would be "in the beginning was the word and the word was with the God and the word was a powerful being". John was simply explaining that Yhshua/Jesus existed with YHWH/Jehovah in heaven before the earth was created.

3. Jesus said "I and the Father are one" at John 10:30, then they picked up stones to stone him, but then he explained just six verses later that he is only "God's Son" John 10:36. it's interesting how people who choose the pagan Roman trinity god stop reading before John 10:36! then, to top it all off, Jesus says that his true followers are "one" like he and his Father (John 17:21, 22) making it crystal clear that "one" doesn't mean 'the same person', it means 'in unity'.

4. supporters of the traditional pagan Roman god also use 1 John 5:7 to prove their co-equal 3-in-1 god but 1 John 5:5 says "Jesus is the son of God" and verse 6 in the oldest manuscripts extant states that he came by "water and blood". John, like all Bible writers is inspired by God's holy “spirit” to “bear witness“. Verse 7 only says "the three bear witness", the rest of the stuff in verse 7 in the KJVersions was added in the FIFTH CENTURY! Then in the oldest manuscripts extant verse 8 doesn’t have anything about "and there are three that bear witness in earth", nor does it contain the Greek words for “Father” or “Word” but it uses the same Greek words from verse 6 for "water” and “blood".
All theologic historians know those facts!

contrast those 4 Scriptures with Jesus' words and the things he taught his Apostles about his subjection to his Almighty God and Father Jehovah. Jesus makes it clear that he is *never* (past, present and future) equal to Jehovah. The trinity idea makes him equal to Jehovah and is tantamount to calling Jesus a liar.
John 20:17
John 17:3-5
John 5:19
John 14:28
Mark 10:18
Matthew 26:39
John 8:17-18
Mark 13:32
Matthew 20:23
Matthew 3:17
Matthew 14:23
Mark 1:35
Mark 6:46
Mark 14:32
Luke 6:12
Colossians 1:15
John 3:16
Revelation 3:12
1 Corinthians 15:24-28
Acts 3:13
Philippians 2:6
Matthew 26:64
Mark 14:62
Luke 22:69
Acts 2:33-36
Acts 5:30, 31
Acts 7:55, 56
Romans 8:34
Ephesians 1:17-21
Psalm 110:1
Hebrews 10:13
Hebrews 12:2
1 Peter 3:22

agape!

.

2007-05-05 21:30:14 · answer #1 · answered by seeker 3 · 5 0

God manifested Himself in the flesh in the person of Jesus Christ. This manifestation of God is called the Son of God (not God the Son) because He was literally conceived in the womb of a woman by the miraculous operation of the Spirit of God (Matthew 1:18-20; Luke 1:35). Thus the word Son never denotes deity alone, but always describes God as manifested in the flesh, in Christ (Matthew 25:31), and sometimes describes Christ's humanity alone (Romans 5:10). We do not say that the Father is the Son, but that the Father is in the Son. We cannot separate the Son from the Incarnation (Galatians 4:4). Therefore, the Son did not pre-exist the Incarnation except as a plan in the mind of God, namely as the Word.

2016-05-20 22:15:43 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

Jehovah God is NOT 3 persons and yes, he obviously knows the difference grammatically as illustrated by the scripture at Genesis 1:26 where he says "Let us make man in our image..." (KJV) and verified at Colossians 1:15, 16 where it tells us that Jesus was the "firstborn of every creature" and he shared in the creating of all other things. How wonderful that you have learned to be so discerning when reading scriptures!

2007-05-06 01:36:03 · answer #3 · answered by Sparkle1 6 · 3 0

It is clear that those who subscribe to the pagan concept of a trinity dont understand nor have they read the Bible completely as it is not what the bible teaches nor is it what Jesus himself taught or believed !!!! 1. the word trinity appears nowhere in the Bible Neither Jesus nor the Apostles taught or believed in such an unCHRISTIAN CONCEPT! The Bible gives us Gods peresonal name Jehovah and it gives us his Sons name Jesus Christ but nowhere does it give us a name for the Holy Spirit !! 2. at Matt 26;39 Jesus is asking his Father jehovah God " if it be possible let this cup pass from me nevertheless , not as I will but as thou wilt two seperate people mentioned there 3. Col 1:15 speaks of Jesus as the image of the invisible God the FIRSTBORN OF ALL CREATION Jesus was Jehovahs first creation a Son and together they created all else 4.Revelation 1:1,3,14 " The revelation of jesus Christ which God Gave Him 5. Mark 13:32 Concerning that day and hour no one knows not even the angels in Heaven nor the Son but ONLY THE FATHER so that says the Son is not equal to the father or he would know also and neither is the holy Spirit mentioned 6 Mat 20:20-23 the mother of the sons of Zebede asked Jesus that her 2 sons sit at his right and left hand in the kingdom Jesus said it was not his to grant that but i belonged to those for whom my Father had prepared it 7. John 14:28 Jesus said if you loved me you would rejoice because i go to the Father for the Father is GREATER THAN I 8. 1st Cor 11:3 I want you to understand that the head of every man is the christ ,the head of woman is her husband and THE HEAD OF CHRIST IS GOD 9 1st Cor 15:27,28 10. John 17:3 this means everlasting life your taking in knowledge of the only true God AND OF THE ONE YOU HAVE SENT FORTH JESUS CHRIST HOPE THIS IS ENOUGH IF NOT MANY MORE CAN BE GIVEN best wishes on your quest for the truth that leads to everlasting life gorbalizer

2007-05-04 11:54:55 · answer #4 · answered by gorbalizer 5 · 6 1

I think most are caught up in semantics to this question, and really can't see the answer. But look at what God said about Adam and Eve. "...

Genies 2:

22And the rib, which the LORD God had taken from man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man.
23And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man.
24Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

Now are we to take this literally, or... I haven’t seen too many people with two heads. Every one must understand the culture that the bible was written in. It is not the culture that we have come to know. In those days, a son was more that just an offspring, but an extension of the father. How many times has one heard "He is the same as his father." Well I live in Greece, and like most archaic cultures this still ring true. Here you will hear "He is his Father." This does not mean that The Son and the Father are the same, but that Like the Farther, the Son REFLECTS the same qualities that the father has INFLUENCED and IMPARTED to the Son.
Think! This can explain the relationship between God and Son.
When God inspired the writers of the bible to inscribe the bible, the writers had to use the metaphors that they knew. And God would not want to present his Knowledge to them in a way they could not understand.
The incorporation of Jesus in to God, was not accepted until about the 3 century AD, after Constantine the Great at the Council of Nicaea decided what the understanding would be. Just use your eyes. God is not some untouchable being. Like it was said in one of the answers above, We were made in his image. This image, has nothing to do with Physical Appearance, but intellectual and spiritual attributes. There is no mystery, only the false knowledge that keeps us from Knowing Him.

Proverbs 8
22 "The Lord created me as the first of his works, before his acts of long ago. 23 I was formed at the very beginning. I was formed before the world began. 24 Before there were any oceans, I was born. There weren't any springs of water at that time. 25 Before the mountains were settled in place, I was born. Before there were any hills, I was born. 26 It happened before the Lord made the earth and its fields. It was before he made the dust of the world. 27 I was there when he set the heavens in place. When he marked out the place where the sky meets the sea, I was there. 28 That was when he put the clouds above. It was when he fixed the ocean springs in place. 29 It was when he set limits for the sea so that the waters had to obey his command. When he marked out the foundations of the earth, I was there. 30 I was the skilled worker at his side. I was filled with delight day after day. I was always happy to be with him. 31 His whole world filled me with joy. I took delight in all human beings.

Could this be Jesus?

The word 'One' in Greek (Ένα) can mean (according to context) in union. Also "in agreement". "Of the same Mind." Jesus said it right when his disciples asked him to show them God. And Jesus and answered that how is it that they do not see God, since they have seen Him. Who could REFLECT God better than Jesus?

(None of these Scriptures are Taken from New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures. The first is from the King James, and the second from the New International Readers. And I can show the actual Greek Translation, but I don't think many will be able to interpret.)

And as far as the reference to John 1 above, you really need to read the Bible in Greek (the one before the King James Version), which the definite article in "... and the Word was God..." is not altered. It actually reads "... and the Word was a god..." Look it up!"

“ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ΗΤΟ Ο ΛΟΓΟΣ ΚΑΙ Ο ΛΟΓΟΣ ΗΤΟ ΠΑΡΑ ΤΩ ΘΕΩ ΚΑΙ ΘΕΟΣ ΗΤΟ Ο ΛΟΓΟΣ”

Note the last “ΘΕΟΣ ΗΤΟ Ο ΛΟΓΟΣ”
If it wanted to say that the Word was God then it should say “Ο ΘΕΟΣ ΗΤΟ Ο ΛΟΓΟΣ”
The definite article ‘Ο’ should be there. But it is not.

2007-05-04 12:16:42 · answer #5 · answered by Cold Truth 5 · 5 0

patrone07 is Incorrect.

Genesis 1:26 - Demstrates that Jesus existed at the time of the formation of the Earth and Heavens. However THE bible shows that Jesus is a created being (created piror to GEN 1:1), and Jesus unlike his father has a God.

Col 1:15 - Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:

1Jo 5:1 - Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God:

Jhn 1:14 - And the Word was made flesh (No where does it say he was spirit and flesh)

Jhn 1:18 - No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [him]. (Since Jesus father is God no one has seen him but they have seen his Son)

Hbr 11:17 - By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten [son], (Like Abraham, Jehovah offered his only begotten Jesus for mankind)

Jhn 8:17,18 It is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true. I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me. (Jehovah and jesus are two seperate beings to be able to bear witness)

2007-05-06 04:48:35 · answer #6 · answered by keiichi 6 · 2 0

My head is spinning with all this answers. So many of you are very well intelligent (informed) with the Holy Bible. I know some and I know some verses. I want to tell you what I know in a more simple way.
My husband and I married, so he leaves his father and mother and we become ONE. One in unity, not as a whole. I am not my husband and he is not me. That's the same way it is with Yahweh/Jehovah (Alpha & Omega), Yeshuah/Jesus (the Son, Messiah, Saviour, Deliverer), The Holy Spirit (Yahweh's Active Force). 3 separate but ONE IN UNITY. Hopefully I got it right. Wow, where do you all find this scriptures? When I accomplish reading the entire Bible wonder if I will know as much as you all! Peace and Love to all.

2007-05-05 17:43:03 · answer #7 · answered by Debs 5 · 4 0

I totally agree with you. There are many verses in the bible that are so clear as to who God, Jesus, and the Holy Spirit is. The Trinity is just another Pagan belief that Christianity has adopted for their own. Satan is blinding the eyes of many people.

2007-05-05 17:48:44 · answer #8 · answered by GraycieLee 6 · 5 0

Jehovah is one person. At Ps. 83:18, he is called the Most High. At John 17:3, Jesus called his Father, the only true God. Jesus is separate from God. That's why Col. 1:3 says: "We thank the God and Father of the Lord Jesus Christ."

Trinitarians can't see that simple truth.

2007-05-04 11:28:25 · answer #9 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 11 1

I find myself more and more wishing the federal government would violate the sepration of church and state clause of the Constituttion and mandate religious leaders have to take history courses! I was a theology major, and I did NOT learn the following from the professors who taught my major, but from a history prof from whom I took an elective course.

The doctrine of the trinity is that there is one God who manifest himself in three different ways. The translations of the original doctrine into English from Latin which state there are three "persons" of the Trinity are MISTRANSLATIONS.

When the doctrine was originally written, the Latin word "personae" was used. At that time, "personae" meant "mask." The idea was that an infinite God could not be perceived by finite humans, so God wore three "masks" to help humans perceive Him. Each mask expressed different properties of God. Shortly after the doctrine was written (like, less than 100 years), the Latin language changed in such a way that "personae" came to mean "person," not "mask." The people who translated the Latin into English (and other modern languages) missed that fact during the translation process. That mistranslation resulted in the modern idea that there is one God who is three different people - a comepletely illogical idea that was never intended.

The point of the Trinity Doctrine is that we, FINITE humans, are incapable of comprehending God, who is INFINITE. Therefore, to understqand God, we have to conisder God to wear three masks (each mask represents a major aspect of God), and look at the actions of God when wearing each mask.

First, God the Father is the source of all existence.

Second, God the Son is the outpouring of of existence to create the universe and everything in it.

Third, God the Holy Spirit is the power that brings all creation back to God, yet allows creation to still retain its individuallity.

The doctrine is highly complex in its modern interpretations and I have NOT done it justice here.

BTW, it is not "Jehovah," it is "YHWH" ("Yah-Way" is that prenunciation), in the question - All scholars of ancient Hebrew agree the "name of god," as it is called, cannot be pronounced as "Jehovah."

2007-05-04 13:19:16 · answer #10 · answered by mcmufin 6 · 1 4

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