Because it's been drilled into their heads for centuries by church leaders with a huge investment in controlling what people think and believe and who have a pathological terror and loathing of sex. (Unless it's with altar boys.) To think the mother of their supposed messiah, if he actually existed, ever had sex in her life is anathema to them.
Ridiculous and totally unnatural.
2007-05-04 10:57:07
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answer #1
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answered by Nightlight 6
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Oh come on now Eric! Do you really think that a PURE and HOLY, Perfect God would use anyone LESS then a TRUE VIRGIN, unblemished woman, to BRING His SINLESS SON into this world?!!! Think on this again . . . Young woman or virgin, .. .it is obvious that Mary was a Virgin, and had never known any man!!!
Lets take a look at some Scriptures here for a moment.
In Isaiah we have: 'Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel' (Isa. 7:14, KJV).
There are numerous other Scriptures, whose passages clearly point us to the Lord Jesus, the Anointed One, who was born of a "virgin" and not just a 'young woman'!
But even among those who agree that Mary was a virgin, at that point in time, there arises a controversy, and that being: Did she stay a virgin after Jesus was born? How strange to even think this! Let's go to the Scriptures again , this time in Matthew to find the answer:
'And Joseph, having risen from the sleep, did as the messenger of the Lord directed him, and received his wife, and did not KNOW her TILL she brought forth her son -- the first-born, and he called his name Jesus (Matt. 1:24,25, Young's Literal).
The Greek word translated "know" in that verse is 'ginosko'. It is also used at Lk. 1:34, where it means the same as having sex with!!!:
'And Mary said unto the messenger, "How shall this be, seeing a husband I do not know?" (Young's Literal).
So you see, the Apostle Mary, the Mother of Jesus, did have Jesus as a VIRGIN, for the babe was conceived of the Holy Spirit, but afterwards, she had Jesus' step brothers and sisters, in the 'normal' family way with Joseph her husband!!!
2007-05-04 11:28:28
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answer #2
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answered by Old Truth Traveler 3
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Well, I would have to say there are one of two likely possibilities. Either:
- The church who hires the translators has an agenda, or
- The person who believes the translation should be "young woman" is in error.
So, how many non-biased translators believe the proper translation is "young woman"? I would think not many, because then it wouldn't fit in with the rest of the story.
Just like the ancient word for "on" is the same as "next to". So either Jesus walked ON water, or walked NEXT TO the water. Problem is, if he walked next to the water, then the rest of the story doesn't fit. Basically, you need context to match the translation.
2007-05-04 10:52:08
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answer #3
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answered by DougDoug_ 6
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It is a greek word not Aranaic. Hebrew says
The OT word for "virgin" used in Isa 7:14 is almah and often means virgin (though sometimes a young woman of marriageable age). The LXX renders almah here as parthenos , which almost always means "virgin"--though even here there are exceptions, such as LXX of Ge 34:4. The overwhelming majority of occurrences of parthenos , however, in both biblical and nonbiblical Greek, require the rendering "virgin"; and the unambiguous context of Mt 1 (see vv. 12, 16, 18, 20, 25) puts Matthew's intent beyond dispute.
2007-05-04 11:02:30
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answer #4
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answered by j.wisdom 6
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Pastor Billy says: please see my 360 blog. Christians have believed Mary was eternally virgin meaning before and after the birth of Jesus. It is believe the birth of Jesus Christ was mystical and not just like any other human birth.
It has only been during the last 200 years in some sects of Protestants that disagreement has arose on this topic.
see my360
addition #2
1. what are ancient languages today were not static in there time hence your definitions are false
2. there is not biblical or traditional evidence to suggest Mary had additional children.
3. there are additional writings which suggest Mary was a temple virgin, meaning she was dedicated to God and was to stay celibate.
4. For the first 1800 years of the Christianity 99% of all Christians including Protestants believed in and professed in Mary's eternal virginity, never mind considering the stalwarts of Christian teaching in Catholicism and Orthodoxy or even what the Muslims think, read the writing of Protesters such as Luther, Calvin, Zwingli and even John Wesley each one taught the new denominations Mary was eternally virgin.
2007-05-04 10:56:33
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Actually in the Birth of Jesus she was a virgin in that she had no intercourse with any human to have him but his life was transfered from heaven to the womb of a virgin in the royal line of David to fulfill Bible prophesy later Mary and Joseph had other children see Matt 13:53-56 Mark 13:31-35 hope this clears up the matter Gorbalizer
2007-05-04 11:22:45
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answer #6
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answered by gorbalizer 5
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In that element in age it develop into common for persons to get married on the age of 14 or 15. So it really is amazingly achievable. That it develop into fairly of a translation blend up. dropping your virginity ability you should have sex. This which signifies that all of us lose it after we get married no matter if we like it or no longer. ha. She so a recommendations as all of us recognize not in any respect had sex till she had conceived Jesus' 4 brothers...and likely he did have brothers. then you actually would ask how did she develop into pregnant with Jesus...nicely that to me is secret. it really is the reason it really is all reported as a miracle.
2016-11-25 02:41:36
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answer #7
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answered by ? 4
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Except that the clarification in Greek...says virgin. not young woman. Almah (the Aramaic word) can be translated both.
If Mary were not a virgin, the Scripture could not be fulfilled. Additionally, if she were just a young woman, Joseph would have divorced her. There would be no reason to believe she didn't cheat.
2007-05-04 10:51:57
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answer #8
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answered by Cheryl Durham, Ph.D. 4
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When one looks at the verse such as these:
Mat 12:47 And someone said to Him, "Listen! Your mother and Your brothers have stood outside seeking to speak to You."
Mat 12:48 But answering, He said to the one having spoken to Him, "Who is My mother? And who are My brothers?" (Analytical Literal Translation)
The thought that she never had any other children seems more than foolish - to suggest that they were created similar to Jesus - little knowledge of the promises given of the Messiah.
Mary was a married woman. It is clear when looking at scripture she had other children AFTER the birth of Jesus. To suggest that her marriage was a sham marriage and that she and her husband never lived together as husband and wife - not supported by scripture (nor suggested for that matter).
2007-05-04 11:20:15
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answer #9
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answered by Toe the line 6
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Literal translation is not contextual and sometimes and in this case, your translation is incorrect. So again a dictionary wins over God's promise? I don't think so! Faith, knowledge and Christian action are all that is needed by anyone looking for the truth, Jesus. Believe or Don't Believe. I hope you find the faith that you are struggling with. Blessings on you!
2007-05-04 10:59:58
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answer #10
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answered by hot wheels 3
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You didn`t explain this translation honestly, it was the normal thing for a young girl in those times to be pure and without sexual experience of any kind, therefore the two are in fact in complete relation to each other,i.e, Virgin=young girl.
You are doing the usual stinkin-thinkin about the purity of the Mother of Jesus.
2007-05-04 10:56:33
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answer #11
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answered by Sentinel 7
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