Because we all know that there's NO sex after marriage, don't we?
So shouldn't we just be saying "sex", since by definition if it occurs it's going to occur BEFORE marriage?
2007-05-04 08:46:29 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Marriage is an ancient Aramaic word meaning lack of sex.
2007-05-04 08:51:45 · answer #1 · answered by bocasbeachbum 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Any detailed response to this question might be seen as boasting on my part, so I'll just say I disagree.
2007-05-04 16:42:44 · answer #2 · answered by Deof Movestofca 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Very good points
2007-05-04 15:52:50 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sounds like someone's bitterly married. lol
2007-05-04 15:51:30 · answer #4 · answered by glitterkittyy 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Zing!
2007-05-04 15:50:06 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Stinks for your marraige!
2007-05-04 15:51:24 · answer #6 · answered by Micah 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋