Whom the prophets of God before Jesus use to pray?
Did they beleive in Trinity or they use to pray Jesus?
Did they beleive in Crucifiction of Jesus?
What about the salvation of the people before jesus come to the world?
Is there any verse in the Bible stated that the men should be marry only one? please give refrence.
thanking you
2007-05-04 03:58:45 · 4 answers · asked by peace 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
1) Directly to God
2) God the Son had not come to earth yet
3) They knew it was to be so....someday...to atone for our sins
4) Salvation came by obediance to the Law
5) 1 Timothy 3:2 (this is a verse for pastors, deacons & people in general)
2007-05-04 04:03:21 · answer #1 · answered by primoa1970 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
“Whom the prophets of God before Jesus use to pray?”
They prayed to God of course.
“Did they beleive in Trinity or they use to pray Jesus?”
Since the Prophets were hundreds of years before Christ they did not pray in His name. However, the doctrine of the Trinity is taken from many OT as well as NT writings.
“Did they beleive in Crucifiction of Jesus?”
Again, the Prophets were not around at the time of Jesus.
“What about the salvation of the people before jesus come to the world?”
God deemed them Righteous or Unrighteous.
“Is there any verse in the Bible stated that the men should be marry only one? please give refrence.”
No.
2007-05-04 04:12:28 · answer #2 · answered by John 1:1 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The Prophets before Jesus prophesied about Jesus,His Diety,Messiahship and the Trinity. The prophets did not necessarily figure out or understand what they we predicting. Is 52-53 prophesied Jesus torture and death. The to-be-venerated Serpent Statue raised on a pole or cross in Deut by Moses in the desert was cited by Jesus Himself as a prophecy of his death.
Those who preceeded Jesus would be saved the same way those who came after: by Grace applied through the Incarnation ,death and Resurrection of God -made-Man. "no one comes to the Father but through me",Jesus says,but how God applies this to those who do not know about Christ sincerely is not for anyone to take God's place and prejudge.
Deacons and bishops are stated in the New Testament to be only of one wife,but no one else is mentioned in that category. Women also are not mentioned in the New Testa ment,to my recollection, to be bound to only one husband except for "becoming only flesh" and "cleav[ing]" to his or her husband. Christians must rely on Oral Apostolic tradition and the Church to ban slavery,polygamy and to authorize many other moral and doctrinal teachings .
2007-05-04 04:24:07 · answer #3 · answered by James O 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
In order to approach God, our sins need to be atoned for. This is done through repentance and sacrifice.
Prior to Christ's death on the cross the Jewish people gave sacrifices at the temple. After Christ's death, we no longer need to offer sacrifices as He is the one perfect sacrifice.
As Jesus had not yet been revealed to them, they did not pray to him but to God the Father with the priests as mediators.
Those that believe in God and had a relationship with him are saved on the basis of Christ's later sacrifice.
See Titus 1:6
An elder must be blameless, the husband of but one wife, a man whose children believe and are not open to the charge of being wild and disobedient.
There is also more about marrying one wife in 1Timothy 3
2007-05-04 04:08:12 · answer #4 · answered by Laura H 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋