For the record, a Bible verse is proof of nothing.
Ever.
2007-05-03 19:45:04
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answer #1
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answered by SkepDoc 2.0 6
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supporters of the "traditions of men" like the pagan Roman god use 1 John 5:7 of the KJV to prove their co-equal 3-in-1 god but most other translations beside the KJV do not have the *added* words. 1 John 5:5 says "Jesus is the son of God"
and verse 6 in the oldest manuscripts extant states that he came by "water and blood". John, like all Bible writers is inspired by God's holy “spirit” to “bear witness“. Verse 7 only says "the three bear witness", the rest of the stuff in verse 7 in the KJVersions was added in the FIFTH CENTURY! Then in the oldest manuscripts extant, verse 8 doesn’t have anything about "and there are three that bear witness in earth", nor does it contain the Greek words for “Father” or “Word” but it uses the same Greek words from verse 6 for "water” and “blood".
All theologic historians know those facts!
John 1:1 in most Bibles reads "in the beginning was the word and the word was with god and the word was god" but if you get a book on ancient Koine Greek which John 1:1 was written in, you will see that John used two different words for each "god" in that verse and a more precise translation would be "in the beginning was the word and the word was with the God and the word was a powerful being". John was simply explaining that Yhshua/Jesus existed with YHWH/Jehovah in heaven before the earth was created. The Koine greek word used the second time in John 1:1 is the same Koine Greek word used at 2 Corinthians 4:4; so then the type of "god" that John used last in John 1:1 is *not* equal to the Almighty Father whom Jesus prays to, worships and serves!
please read the following Scriptures for further, unmistakeably clear understanding:
John 20:17
John 17:3-5
John 5:19
John 14:28
Mark 10:18
Matthew 26:39
John 8:17-18
Mark 13:32
Matthew 20:23
Matthew 3:17
Matthew 14:23
Mark 1:35
Mark 6:46
Mark 14:32
Luke 6:12
Colossians 1:15
John 3:16
Revelation 3:12
1 Corinthians 15:24-28
Acts 3:13
Philippians 2:6
Matthew 26:64
Mark 14:62
Luke 22:69
Acts 2:33-36
Acts 5:30, 31
Acts 7:55, 56
Romans 8:34
Ephesians 1:17-21
Psalm 110:1
Hebrews 10:13
Hebrews 12:2
1 Peter 3:22
agape!
.
2007-05-03 20:03:01
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answer #2
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answered by seeker 3
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That isn't what 1 John 5:7 says. The KJV is a very poor translation of the bible. If you are going to try to get into technicalities, you'll need to compare verses within different bibles and do a bit of research. There is no mention of God, Holy Ghost or Son in 1 John 5:7 in the original language. What is mentioned in 1 John 5:7-8 is "the Spirit, the water, and the blood;". In fact, the later verses go into describing the Son of God and God as different entities that are in agreement, not one entity with three facets.
Trinity doctron is not found anywhere in the bible. Not in the OT at all, and only by forced in interpretations in poorly translated bibles such as the KJV in the NT.
2007-05-03 19:56:11
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answer #3
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answered by Pint 4
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According to the KJV these three are one, but other versions say that the Three are in agreement. Furthermore, the other versions (e.g. NIV) don't even explicitly mention the Father or the Word, but blood and water. If you want to take an honest approach to prooving the Trinity, check the source text in the source language. Unfortunately, the KJV isn't always the most accurate translation for the modern reader.
i have spent years trying to find irrefutable Biblical proof that the Trinity exists and i haven't been able to find anything conclusive.
A lot of people claim that John 1 also testifies about Christ's divinity, but in the source text the proof sadly isn't there. It is impossible to separate the translators' personal religious beliefs from their translations. Since we live in a society were the trinity is accepted as Truth it often finds its way into our translations even though it isn't in the sources texts.
If you can find proof that the trinity is a Biblical supported idea, PLEASE email me so that i can put an end to years of searching.
2007-05-03 19:57:49
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answer #4
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answered by Jason 2
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1 John 5:7 is not a genuine part of the NT!
It was added to some Greek manuscripts to support the Holy Trinity doctrine shortly before the King James Version was made.
It is not found in any old Greek manuscripts of the NT.
Scribble it out of your King James version!
One reason this verse was added is that there is no solid proof of the Trinity in the Bible. Some dishonest individuals in the middle ages were desperate to add some.
Scribble it out or go along with the lie - your choice!
2007-05-03 22:12:57
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answer #5
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answered by Ousboui 2
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One of the proofs and there are more.
John 14:9 JESUS SAID TO PHILIP
Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, show us the Father.
King James Version may have a few mistakes, but it has fewer mistakes than most. The mistakes it has does not alter God's Word of Truth.
John 14:10 JESUS ASKED THE DISCIPLES
Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself(meaning my own authority): but the Father that dwelleth in me, He doeth the works.
LP why didn't you tell us to read the above 2 Scriptures?
Seen me ... seen the Father: There are not attributes of deity that the Son does not possess. This statement is most powerful. Everything that is true of god the Father is also true of the Son. The doctrine of the Trinity in the New Testament may be inscrutable, but it is also inescapable.
The Father is also known as the God of All Comfort (2 Corinthians 1:3) KJV
2007-05-04 04:26:59
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answer #6
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answered by Jeancommunicates 7
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No this one scripture proves nothing, for there are many more scriptures that clearly show the trinity to be a false doctrine, and your cited scripture says nothing to prove the trinity at all, you have some good answers to your question already and L.P gives you a very good explanation too, but you may want to do some research yourself, this link explains the origin of the Trinity:
http://www.thunderministries.com/Beast/Apostasy.html you may also want to google trinity and read some more about it's origins, there is more information available of the origins of the Trinity and the ortigins are not in the Bible, for the Trinity is not a Bible teaching, Jesus did not teach it, nor did he ever say he is God or that he is equal to God but he said he is the son of God(John10:36) God did not say that Jesus was him or any part of him he said that Jesus is his son.(Matthew3:16,17) While Jesus was on earth he NEVER did anything to pleasehimself(Romans15:3)His formost concern was the doing of God's Will yet if he was part of the trinity and equal to God would he not be doing his own Will?Jesus alsi says that his Father is greater than he is((John14:28) The last point I will make, is the Bible says that no man has ever seen God at any time, yet Jesus has been seen by thousands.
2007-05-03 20:43:12
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answer #7
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answered by I speak Truth 6
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When I got married my husband and I became one. When a man marries a woman so he leaves his father and mother and become 1 with his wife. I will take that in the same way as God Almighty, The Son, and The Holy Spirit. The 3 is one in Unity and not one as a whole. Its like I am one with my husband but I am NOT my husband and vice versa. God gave us the Hoy Bible and I will admit its quite complicated and easy to misinterpret. You read one verse here and another similar verse there; so you have to really think it through and ask God for opening up His wisdom to you in what He wants to revealed to you. If you don't get it today, write it down and go back again until your faith shows through and God sends His revelation to you. Alot of times you have to read (focus) between the lines. Most of the messages are there somewhat hidden and only a sincere heart will be able to find the hidden message. May God and His Holy Spirit be with you when you are seeking. Seek and you will find. Yeshuah is Love.
2007-05-04 05:13:00
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answer #8
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answered by Debs 5
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The Comma Johanneum!!!
According to YOU (and others) the word is Jesus. But to me WORD means His book.
Plus we all know that the Bible has changed overtime, there have been copier's mistakes, deleations,mistranslations, added words and phrases etc...and the books were picked to be used out of many many many other books.
The first Christians did not believe in the Trinity. There were other beliefs...now they are called heresies but that is because the Trinity won out (doesn't mean it was right though).
I got this off of wikipedia (although it is NOT the only source you can find this in many books):
One of the most controversial verses of the Bible is an explicit reference to what some people consider the trinity(not an explicit biblical doctrine), the Comma Johanneum, (1 John 5:7-8). They do not appear in any version of the text prior to the sixteenth century, but do appear in the King James Bible, something Isaac Newton commented on in An Historical Account of Two Notable Corruptions of Scripture. This is sometimes used as evidence to counter the King-James-Only Movement. The majority of modern translations (for example New International Version, English Standard Version and New American Standard Bible,) do not include this text. Albert Barnes (1798-1870) said regarding its authenticity:
On the whole, therefore, the evidence seems to me to be clear that this passage is not a genuine portion of the inspired writings, and should not be appealed to in proof of the doctrine of the Trinity.
The Comma Johanneum is a comma, or short clause, present in most translations of the First Epistle of John published from 1522 until the latter part of the nineteenth century, owing to the widespread use of the third edition of the Textus Receptus (TR) as the sole source for translation. In readings containing the clause, such as this one from the King James Bible, 1 John 5:7–8 reads as follows, the Comma itself here rendered with emphasis:
5:7 "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. 5:8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one."
The resulting passage is an explicit reference to the Trinity (the doctrine that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are one God), and for this reason some Christians are resistant to the elimination of the Comma from modern Biblical translations. Nonetheless, nearly all recent translations have removed this clause, as it does not appear in older copies of the Epistle and it is not present in the passage as quoted by any of the early Church Fathers, who would have had plenty of reason to quote it in their Trinitarian debates (for example, with the Arians), had it existed then. Most Churches now agree that the theology contained in the Comma is true, but that the Comma is not an original part of the Epistle of John.
2007-05-03 19:57:09
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answer #9
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answered by Sassafrass 6
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Yes, I agree with you.
Although there are easier translations of the Bible to read, my friend. If you are allowed, check out the New Living Translation. I used to sell Bibles at our local bookstore, and I learned so much. I think the NLT is the best and truest translation, and the easiest to understand and teach from.
Good question!
2007-05-03 22:50:16
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answer #10
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answered by Mrs.Fine 5
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to visikix quoting john 10:30...
if "i and the father are one" = jesus (the speaker) is god..
then we are all god...
hv u never sang the hymn...
"we are one in the spirit, we are one in the lord"
it just proves that WE all orginated from one life force GOD...
2007-05-03 21:08:11
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answer #11
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answered by efurong 2
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