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Greetings,
I'm a former Roman Catholic but I'm still generally Christian.
My question is (I'm not sure where I stand on this topic)
If Jesus is the only begotten son of God doesn't that contradict what is in your bible? John The Baptist was also concieved by the power of the Holy Spirit so wouldn't that also make John another direct son of God? And Mother Mary was also concieved by the power of the Holy Spirit so that would make her the direct daughter of God? Yet in Catholicism they also believe that not only was Jesus the son of God but God himself (because God took apart of himself which became Jesus on earth). So actually God (as Mother Mary) concieved himself/herself which became Jesus and God (as John The Baptist) baptized Jesus(himself). Why don't you people follow the bible fully? Also The angel (Gabriel?) said name your son Emanuel (God is with us) instead they named him Jesus/Joshua (Jehovah is 'generous' or 'saves'). can someone explain this?

2007-05-03 10:47:59 · 15 answers · asked by Concept Styles 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

FireBall226, I never said Catholics aren't Christians.

Coco_Loco, Not all Christians believe in this conception or that Jesus was nothing but a "great guy". Not all Christians have the same bible Catholics don't use the KJV or Gnostic.

Your all right about John The Baptist. I checked. The Holy Spirit helped. I was misinformered. Sorry

Growing up Catholic I was taught the Imaculate Conception ORIGINALLY was about Mary and no it's not in the bible its an oral tradition.

Meredith, It also says: And she gave birth to her first born son. Luke 2:7 Why, not only born son or only born child?
And his brothers & sisters Mark 3:31 Or Mark 6:3

Not that I believe he had blood related brothers and sisters. Because I saw on tv that it was common knowledge back during Jesus' time on earth Joseph had a previous family. But I wonder why it doesn't mention them until Jesus was an adult, & why say Mary was the mother of them when she would be the step mother? Why not children of Joseph?

2007-05-03 13:11:30 · update #1

15 answers

You are 100% correct, John was born by Elizabeth,a virgin birth,And Mary was born of a virgin.But that is where that ends
those are miracles,God told us Jesus is his Son.Gabriel did in fact say call the child Emanuel which does mean God is with us, they chose Jesus which means saves and is essentially the same.Jesus is the Only begotten Son.

2007-05-03 11:02:19 · answer #1 · answered by gwhiz1052 7 · 0 0

Unlike John the Baptist who had an actual father Jesus didn't...remember that Mary was a virgin during the time she was pregnant. It's a contradiction to believe that Mary was also concieved of the Holy Spirit since she also had an actual father and a mother. That is where your confusion began. Catholics preach of Mary having been sinless because she couldn't possibly have concieved Christ through the intervention of God if she had a sin according to Catholic scholars but then that is hard to believe in since it will mean that her mother, grandmother, great grandmother and so on and so forth would also have to be sinless if people were to believe that. It being so then there wouldn't be a need for Christ because there would be no Original Sin. Refer to John 3:16 "for God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten Son..." It didn't state 'sons' or 'daughter' anywhere.

2007-05-03 10:59:54 · answer #2 · answered by meredith 3 · 0 1

John the Baptist- father was Zacharias, it says nothing about JtB being conceived by the Holy Spirit (Luke 1:5ff.)
Nowhere in the bible does it say Mary was conceived by the Holy Spirit either.
You're mixing up the persons of the Trinity. God the Father is not God the Son is not the Holy Spirit, yet all three are one God.
You're taking the naming thing too literally.

2007-05-03 11:13:02 · answer #3 · answered by Deof Movestofca 7 · 0 0

Let me first make this clear to you: without the Holy Spirit's intervention, you would not be here today. You were concieved by God's power. Are you a direct child of God? I don't think so. John the Baptist's conception was a miracle because his mother, Elizabeth was so old to have a child; he was to proclaim Jesus's coming. Our Blessed Mother was concieved without sin so that she could be the Mother of the Son of God. I am Catholic and I believe that Jesus was the Son of God and that Our Lady was concieved without sin.

2007-05-03 10:57:16 · answer #4 · answered by Atticus Finch 4 · 1 0

Your writing reflects some terrible misunderstandings. Please read the Holy Bible.

John the Baptist's father was not God. It was Zechariah. (Luke 1:5)

Elizabeth (John the Baptist's mother) was barren (Luke 1:7).
God opened her womb so that she and her husband would have a son.

Jesus was God's only son (John 3:16)

Mary was a virgin (Matthew 1:18).

Mary was not conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit. She was merely a woman that found favor with God (Luke 1:30)

God is the tri-personal (Father, Son and Holy Spirit) constituting one Godhead. (Unger's Bible Dictionary)

The prophet Isaiah said the name "Immanuel" (meaning "God is With us) to convince Ahaz that God could rescue him from his enemies (by sending a savior). (Isaiah 7:14).

When Joseph, Mary's husband-to-be, was dreaming, an angel of the Lord appeared telling him to name the baby Jesus because he will save his people from their sins. (Matt. 1:21). Thus, a savior was born named Jesus, which means Jehovah saves.

If you are reading this message and you have not accepted Jesus as your personal savior, earnestly come to accept Him as God's Son--He is eternal life and confess to Him your sins. He will save you and not only that, God will give you the free gift of the Holy Spirit to dwell within you.

2007-05-03 13:14:22 · answer #5 · answered by Diane H 3 · 0 0

John the Baptist was conceived by the HELP of the Holy Spirit. Jesus was conceived by God himself, he is God in a man's body. John never called God his father or became the Messiah. Jesus is a son of God and as for John God acted more like a fertility doctor than the father.

2007-05-03 11:20:22 · answer #6 · answered by cynical 6 · 0 1

no. John was the result of God allowing a human woman to conceive even though it should be impossible. John was the result of normal conception under extraordinary circumstances. But he was still a genetic combination of both Zechariah and Elizabeth.

Jesus had no biological father. The Holy Spirit actually gave Mary the complementary 23 chromosomes which her ova needed to form a child. This made Jesus "God's son". He was the Son already, as His soul was begotten of God, actually being part of God, and just placed in a human body that it was to be in as to function on Earth legally.

Jesus means Savior. Immanuel was His literal earthly name, but Jesus was what everyone knew Him as. I guess like a title, more than a nickname but not official; perhaps even the name inspired of God. The Bible says that Mary was to call Him Jesus, and Josesph, Immanuel. So likely, again, it was what He was called, not birthed as.

you can call Him Jesus Immanuel Christ if you want (yes I know Christ isn't His last name).

2007-05-03 11:04:16 · answer #7 · answered by Hey, Ray 6 · 0 1

I think you have some misinformation here. Yes, Mary and John the Baptist were believed to be concieved miraculously, but not in the same way as Jesus. Lets take this in chronological order. According to Roman Catholic doctrine Mary's parents were elderly and past child bearing years. God preformed a miracle and Mary was concieved through natural means (i.e. intercourse) but without the stain of original sin, which the human race was cursed with after Adam and Eve's sin. This is the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception.

John the Baptist was also concieved when his parents were past child-bearing, but again through intercourse. Elizabeth was the cousin of Mary. This occured several months before Mary concieved Jesus. I have heard it said that John was concieved with original sin, but it was cleansed when he leapt in the womb when Mary visited Elizabeth. I have to be honest and say I am not sure that is actual doctrine.

Jesus was not concieved by natural means, but was a virgin birth, that is the Holy Spirit caused him to form in Mary's womb without aid of a man. Jesus was sinless being the son of God. This is NOT the immaculate conception, that refers to Mary.

That is a quick run down of the events according to the church. Now, let me say, I am an atheist, but I was raised catholic and majored in theology, so I am not saying I believe this, but I want you to have solid information, not the BS some fundementalists here talk about catholics.

2007-05-03 11:00:04 · answer #8 · answered by in a handbasket 6 · 0 1

John The Baptist was also concieved by the power of the Holy Spirit so wouldn't that also make John another direct son of God? And Mother Mary was also concieved by the power of the Holy Spirit so that would make her the direct daughter of God

That is incorrect.

2007-05-03 10:53:23 · answer #9 · answered by NickofTyme 6 · 1 2

Many Protestant religions do no longer have self belief in unique Sin -- so the stainless theory isn't an mission for them. many of the teachings of the Catholic Church are not any more surely contained in the Bible -- yet follow logically from what's there. i imagine that the conception of the stainless theory follows logically from the have self belief that Jesus is God -- and God would not be carried with the help of a woman whose soul develop into marked with sin. As for Mary remaining a Virgin, there are 2 the reason why Catholics have self belief she stayed a virgin at the same time as Protestants imagine that she had different little ones. the first reason contains translation blunders and the 2d reason is that Protestants have excluded books from the Bible that advise that she remained a virgin. First -- the interpretation blunders. The KJV says that Mary had no kinfolk with Joseph till Jesus develop into born. In English, that is implied that they DID have kinfolk after his delivery. although, contained in the unique Greek, there is not any such implication. The KJV also refers back to the brothers of Jesus. although, the unique Greek makes use of a note that in basic terms ability 'close relative.' Catholics have self belief that those persons are cousins. The Apocrypha has been part of the Catholic Bible because the Bible develop into finalized on the Council of Rome contained in the fourth century. Protestants have thrown out those books. yet in a unmarried of those books, Mary expresses concerns over her marriage to Joseph because she has taken a vow of virginity. Catholics have self belief that the mum of Jesus would not in any respect ruin a vow to God -- so she would have remained a virgin -- even after the delivery of Jesus.

2016-11-25 00:00:08 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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