and be married to Joseph at the same time? Don't marriages need to be consummated ?
2007-05-03 09:31:12 · 26 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
She conceived as a virgin it does not say she delivered as a virgin.
2007-05-03 09:34:59 · answer #1 · answered by I'm so cool 3 · 3⤊ 6⤋
In Matthew 1:18-25 It explains that Mary was promised to Joseph in marriage and before they were married she became pregnant by the Holy Spirit. Joseph didn't want to ruin his name so he broke off the marriage. Then he had a dream where an angel of the Lord appeared to him and explained what happened and instructed him what to do. He married Mary and did not have sexual relations with her until after Jesus was born.
2007-05-03 19:14:25 · answer #2 · answered by 2 cents 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Mary was a conserated vigin who as a child devoted her life to God. However, 2,000 years ago in Israel was a pretty dangerous place a a woman needed protection. She married Joseph for protection. Joseph was chosen to be Mary's chaste spouse by God. Often you see Joseph holding lilies in works of art. This is because the staff he was holding bloomed with lilies as Mary passed indicating they were to marry each other. There marriage was NEVER consumated. Often in prayers you will heard mention of Joesph as 'ever chaste husband of Mary.
She concieved by the Holy Spirit. Although it's not clear how the delivery went it's taught that Mary remained a virgin before during and after. I've read the Jesus appeared in her arms and I've also read that Jesus passed through Mary as light passes through glass.
2007-05-03 16:44:53 · answer #3 · answered by Dawn-Marie 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The Account reads this way in Matthew 1:18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
Jesus was/is fully God [see Hebrews 13:8, Heb.1:5-9 where the Father address Him as God also John 8:58] but when mankind sinned they pulled the plug on life but God sent the second member of The Godhead to plug it back in, we do not know and can not understand how God can become man, and by the way when Jesus returned to Heaven He kept the human body not for just the time He was here but FOREVER, WOW such love find out more free bible lessons www.itiswritten.com God bless email me also wgr88@yahoo.com
2007-05-03 16:39:02 · answer #4 · answered by wgr88 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
She was only engaged to Joseph at the time that she conceived. They weren't married until after she was pregnant.
The Bible says that Joseph planned to divorce her quietly when he found out she was pregnant. The reason it uses the word divorce is because engagements were taken much more seriously back then than they are now. When two people were engaged, they were committed for life. However, it wasn't until the actual marriage day that they consummated the marriage.
2007-05-03 16:38:45 · answer #5 · answered by Go16 4 · 1⤊ 3⤋
The Bible makes clear that Joseph did not "know" her until after the birth of Jesus. The word know is a euphemism for intercourse. Also, Mary was PROMISED to Joseph, which is a way of saying engaged. According to Jewish custom, an engagement was a serious thing and required a divorce to end since there was an exchange of gifts and dowry etc. What finalized the marriage is, as you pointed out, consummation.
That said, if God can create something so incredibly complex as DNA, don't you suppose he can cause a human egg to be fertile without a man?
Tom
2007-05-03 16:34:56 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 3⤋
Mary was a virgin when she conceived Jesus. After His birth, she and Joseph probably consummated their marriage.
2007-05-03 16:35:24 · answer #7 · answered by Mary W 5 · 5⤊ 3⤋
Mary was not married to Joseph at the time. She was betrothed to him (a long engagement). When Joseph knew about the pregnancy, God revealed to him in a dream that this was His son, otherwise he would not have married her believing that he had been disgraced.
2007-05-03 16:46:27 · answer #8 · answered by lix 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Their marriage was not consummated (if ever consummated) until after the birth of her son Jesus.
Matthew 1: 23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
24Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:
25And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.
2007-05-03 16:40:17 · answer #9 · answered by tebone0315 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
If you look closely at this bit of early mythology (stolen directly from the demigod Mithra legends that pre-date Christianity), you'll conclude there was really no need for Joseph at all, other than the means by whom Jesus could be traced to the house of David — which isn't traceable if Joseph wasn't his father.
2007-05-03 16:42:21 · answer #10 · answered by Sweetchild Danielle 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
it was custom during that time that they be seperated a year after being married, so He can find a job and a home for his new wife... so they were not together during this time of Jesus being put into Marys belly
2007-05-03 16:37:52 · answer #11 · answered by Pastor Biker 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋