2007-05-03 01:42:59 · 10 answers · asked by life is too short 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
This isn't a religious issue, it is one of law. The total percentage of any estate (inheritance) is determined by what the spouse leaves in the Last Will and Testament. If there is no will, then the surviving spouse receives 100%.
2007-05-03 01:47:18 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
In western culture, the Christian faith has no affect on inheritance rights. It is determined by whatever is in the person's will. If there is no will, normally everything would go to the spouse. If no spouse, then it would be divided equally amoung all the children. The gender of the person is not considered in western culture.
2007-05-03 01:51:29 · answer #2 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the family, what they decide or if the husband decides. Usually a husband and wife will write a will and everything will go to the wife or husband depending on who dies first. Even if there is no will it will usually go to the wife, and children, or husband and children. Usually married couples share everything, everything is 50/50.
2007-05-03 02:05:37 · answer #3 · answered by divinity2408 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It appears like your are in Britain. i do no longer comprehend something about British regulation yet in California an inheritance is seen "sole and separate" belongings no longer marital belongings. also the actual undeniable truth that they are already divorced might want to look to ensure that the inheritance is hers on my own. it variety of feels to me that the solicitor is saying that "once married continuously financially joined" and that in basic terms would not sound splendid to me. if it quite is so then can your pal declare area of her ex husbands destiny earnings if any? all of it sounds somewhat fishy to me. might want to it truly is that howdy shared an same solicitor for the divorce and the solicitor grow to be retained by her ex husband? if it quite is the case, the solicitor may properly be biased or quite in basic terms representing the ex. If I were your pal, i might want to get a 2d legal opinion because it appears like this solicitor has bats in his belfry.
2016-10-18 05:35:03 · answer #4 · answered by hinch 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's not dependent on one's religion, unless they choose to do so.(giving to an institution in one's will)
The state laws, estate plans, and judges/attorneys come in to play
(if my spouse were to die, I would receive the remain of the estate)
2007-05-03 01:47:33 · answer #5 · answered by <><><> 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
My wife gets the things I left for her, Why should I leave her helpless in this society. She is wise enough to give what is to go to the church, If anything, She does believe in tithing as I do.
2007-05-03 01:48:25 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why do you ask?
"What share does a woman get..."
(Thought I'd help you polish this up just a bit. Here's a start.)
2007-05-03 01:54:47 · answer #7 · answered by randyken 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Our faith has nothing to do with what we leave our loved ones.
If I should happen to go first, I will make sure my wife gets everything I own.
2007-05-03 01:46:07 · answer #8 · answered by primoa1970 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's according to the laws of the land...if they had a will or not...
2007-05-03 01:47:31 · answer #9 · answered by debbie2243 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
those are personal decisions according to life insur policies
2007-05-03 01:46:55 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋