Why is it considered nonstandard English to say "Woe is I" rather than "Woe is me"?

Answer 1

it's just more poetic that way. it's the same as when someone says ''he who does such and such...'' the correct version would be ''him who does such and such...'', but it just sounds cooler to say it that way.

Answer 2

Tabun1015 is spot on here. We have largely lost our case markings in English, except for use with personal pronouns, as such statements like this seem to be ungrammatical to some, but are actually still part of the grammar.

Answer 3

This is a remanent of the dative case in English. When interpreted with a dative meaning it means "Woe is to me" (i.e. I have woe). "Methinks" is another seemingly ungrammatical expression which can be explained as being a remanent of the dative case. You can read more about it at the link below.

Answer 4

It was first used in Wycliffe's Bible translation of 1382 :

Job 10:15: "If I be wicked, woe unto me; and if I be righteous, yet will I not lift up my head. I am full of confusion; therefore see thou mine affliction"

Psalms 120:5: "Woe is me, that I sojourn in Mesech, that I dwell in the tents of Kedar!"

Shakespeare also used it in Hamlet :

"O, woe is me,
To have seen what I have seen, see what I see!" (Act III, Scene 1)

"But, woe is me, you are so sick of late,
So far from cheer and from your former state." (Act III, Scene 2)

Between those two, modern English was created. Who are you to fight that influence! ;-)

Answer 5

Because it clearly communicates the thought. "Woe Is" has never been heard of by most people and if you use it no one will know what you are talking about.

Answer 6

Because 'woe is me' is a standard expression, many centuries old, and doesn't need to correspond to modern grammatical rules.