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2 answers

it depends on the culpability of that person/corporation.

What this means for example...lets say an officer of the corporation without the knowledge of anyone else decides to kill a competitior...if no one else knew then the corporation is not liable.....now if this was reported to superiors and they did not act to stop him or report him then the corporation could be held responsible.

Now in terms of an individual to be liable for the crime of another you have to have either solicited the crime or been in conspiracy to the crime.

If you solicit or hire a person to kill your wife...you are guilty just as if you pulled the trigger yourself....google former Carolina Panthers football player Rae Carruth.

Next as a member of a conspiracy you are liable for any crimes that happen to further that conspiracy...so if you agree to be the getaway driver at a robbery and the other guy goes in and kills the clerk and robs them you are guilty of robbery and of felony murder just as if you murdered the person yourself.

Under accomplice liablity you may have not conspired (planned the crime) but if you assist in being an accesory before the fact of the crime you are liable of the crime as if you did it.

If you are an accesory after the fact...ie you just helped him get away you are just guilty of aiding and abetting.

2007-05-02 14:45:32 · answer #1 · answered by Dr. Luv 5 · 0 0

The corporation cannot be held liable for a crime but its officers or employees can be indicted if acting over and above their duties as representatives of the corporation. Only monetary claims can be charged against a corporation to compensate for damages.

2007-05-02 22:55:57 · answer #2 · answered by FRAGINAL, JTM 7 · 0 1

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