English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Does this verse still apply ? ( four versions )

Genesis 3:16

To the woman he said,
"I will greatly increase your pains in childbearing;
with pain you will give birth to children.
Your desire will be for your husband,
and he will rule over you." (NIV)

>>>>>>><<<<<<<

Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children; and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee.

KJV

>>>>>>><<<<<<<

To the woman He said,
"I will greatly multiply
Your pain in childbirth,
In pain you will bring forth children;
Yet your desire will be for your husband,
And he will rule over you."

NASB

>>>>>>><<<<<<<


To the woman He said:
“I will greatly multiply your sorrow and your conception;
In pain you shall bring forth children;
Your desire shall be for your husband,
And he shall rule over you.”

NKJV

>>>>>>><<<<<<<

2007-05-02 10:56:37 · 21 answers · asked by dave777 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

are u confused, or what? (CUTENESS)

I am not confused. I am attempting to get feedback as to peoples opinion on the state of women's rights and standing after JESUS visited the earth.

It seems to me that women lost their equal status with man (he shall rule over you) and did JESUS restore their (womens) standing ?

2007-05-02 11:17:39 · update #1

lieberhaeschen said:

Maybe I am missing something, but I really don't see how being "ruled over" by ones husband makes them liberated.

I've got no beef with Jesus, but I don't understand how this shows he liberated women.

>>>>>>><<<<<<<

It was not intended to do so.

The verse states the condition of women in the Olde Testament.

The question is >>> HAS THAT CONDITION CHANGED SINCE JESUS LEFT THE EARTH ???

>>>>>>><<<<<<<

2007-05-02 11:29:44 · update #2

elaeblue

He DID NOT liberate women if he had it would not have taken until the 1900's for women to be given the right to vote and the right to handle their own affairs.

Women liberated themselves from the slavery imposed upon them to allow men to rule over them.

2007-05-02 13:23:04 · update #3

By this answer do you mean that women are rebelling against the olde testament judgement ?
>>>>>>><<<<<<<

2007-05-02 13:24:34 · update #4

21 answers

ok. Heres what I belive. Man should be powerful than women. Its just the way it is. Men are more powerful. (I am probably the only girl who would say that, but its true) I perfer A man to be higher than me...it just seems right.
oh and the laws of the old testement were wiped out. So says the New Testement.

*hugs!*

Meow! =^-^=

2007-05-02 17:44:16 · answer #1 · answered by ♥ God's Kitty ♥ 2 · 1 2

This comes from the fall of Adam & Eve. Jesus did liberate women as well as men but not in this way. This applies to the natural consequences to sin. There is still a natural consequence to sin. Jesus liberated the soul, the eternal part of man and woman. The mind, will and emotions. Death cannot claim the believer because of sin. The sins of the believer are covered by the blood of Christ.

2007-05-02 18:05:56 · answer #2 · answered by Joyful Noise 5 · 0 0

From what I have read about Jesus, it would seem to me that this was his intent, however, as usual, his message got lost. Those verses are from the OT, before Jesus' supposed birth, so I would guess it depends on whether you go by the OT or the NT. Since I don't go by either, it doesn't mean much to me. Women liberated themselves by their own actions over many years. Its just too bad that more women aren't as free as American women are. And yet American women still have a long way to go before we are completely equal with men in all walks of life .

2007-05-02 18:07:44 · answer #3 · answered by meg3f 5 · 0 0

Dude: If the woman was ever genuinely oppressed it was because of her own sinfulness. All other types of oppression were man made. The woman is supposed to be man's helpmate, his sweetheart. Jesus saw that many women were not valued or treated well because of what Eve had done, but side from that, she needed no special liberation, just love and recognition for the special being that she was created to be.
Cheers,
Mr. M on "liberate women."

2007-05-02 18:03:21 · answer #4 · answered by Humberto M 6 · 0 0

Purely in regards to the Scripture listed, no he did not liberate us from the child bearing pains and sorrows.

However, back in the era Jesus walked the earth Gentiles and dogs were more highly regarded than women.

In the early Christian church, women were elevated within the congregation. Jesus gave respect, and rightfully so, back to women that the teachings and practices of the previous milleniums took away.

2007-05-02 18:05:06 · answer #5 · answered by Carol D 5 · 0 0

He DID NOT liberate women if he had it would not have taken until the 1900's for women to be given the right to vote and the right to handle their own affairs.

Women liberated themselves from the slavery imposed upon them to allow men to rule over them.

2007-05-02 19:59:28 · answer #6 · answered by elaeblue 7 · 1 0

Man is the head in the marriage relationship.

"But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God." - 1 Cor. 11:3

That is not say that one is better than the other. they are equal, but the man is the one responsible for the relationship. If they make a poor decision as a couple, it's not the wife's fault, but the husbands. The man is the one who gives an account to Christ. That's the order, woman to man, man to Christ, Christ to God the Father.

2007-05-02 18:05:29 · answer #7 · answered by Micah 2 · 0 0

There can be no liberation of women or men until sin has been removed because pain in childbirth was a result of sin.
Therefore when sin has been finally judged at "The Great White Throne" then true liberation will take place.

2007-05-02 18:03:29 · answer #8 · answered by Nathan C 1 · 0 0

Jesus was present at creation and thus He was there when Eve was told what the consequences of eating the fruit would be. At the beginning before she ate, she and Adam were equals. This was part of the perfect creation, equality between men and women. This is how it will be in heaven and yes, I think that is how Jesus thought of women when on earth and how He thinks of them now while He is in heaven.

2007-05-02 18:03:12 · answer #9 · answered by future dr.t (IM) 5 · 0 0

Maybe I am missing something, but I really don't see how being "ruled over" by ones husband makes them liberated.

I've got no beef with Jesus, but I don't understand how this shows he liberated women.

2007-05-02 18:19:53 · answer #10 · answered by 4 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers