2007-04-30 23:38:39 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Only His Father. Christ was in the flesh and thus in submission to his Father who is spirit as the spirit should rule the flesh.
2007-04-30 23:49:31 · answer #1 · answered by djmantx 7 · 6⤊ 0⤋
Depends on how literally you take the concept of the immaculate conception and virgin birth - both of which are later additions to Christianity (4th Century AD). The literal and dogmatic view is that Jesus is the word of god incarnated. The non-canonical view (not supported by the church) is that the original of Matthew 1:16 can be read as Joseph being the father of Jesus, who was then divine by the grace of god.
There are two differing genealogies of Christ, one in Luke and one in Matthew. This tends to put a dampener on anyone arguing that the bible is the literal truth (the doctrine of biblical inerrancy).
2007-05-01 07:53:10 · answer #2 · answered by Valarian 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that would be me
2007-05-01 06:58:18 · answer #3 · answered by the light exposes the darkenss 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋