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because my dictionary says this :Virgin Mary’s sinlessness: the Roman Catholic doctrine that the Virgin Mary’s soul was free from the stain of original sin from the moment of her soul’s conception.
The term does not, contrary to popular belief, refer to the conception of Jesus Christ.

so i just want to know what it does actually mean.

2007-04-30 21:01:46 · 19 answers · asked by -♦One-♦-Love♦- 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

so which one is it?...the virgin birth? or the dictionary def.?

2007-04-30 21:08:40 · update #1

19 answers

Many people mistakenly believe that the immaculate conception refers to the conception of Jesus Christ. Jesus’ conception was most assuredly immaculate…but this concept does not refer to Jesus at all. The immaculate conception is a doctrine of the Romans Catholic Church in regards to Mary, Jesus’ mother. An official statement of the doctrine reads, “…the blessed Virgin Mary to have been, from the first instant of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of Almighty God, in view of the merits of Christ Jesus the Savior of Mankind, preserved free from all stain of original sin.” Essentially the immaculate conception is the belief that Mary was protected from original sin, that Mary did not have a sin nature, and was, in fact, sinless.

The problem with the doctrine of the immaculate conception is that it is not taught in the Bible. The Bible nowhere describes Mary as anything but an ordinary human female whom God chose to be the mother of the Lord Jesus Christ. Mary was undoubtedly a godly woman (Luke 1:28). Mary was surely a wonderful wife and mother. Jesus definitely loved and cherished His mother (John 19:27). The Bible gives us no reason to believe that Mary was sinless. In fact, the Bible gives us every reason to believe that Jesus Christ is the only Person who was not “infected” by sin and never committed a sin (Ecclesiastes 7:20; Romans 3:23; 2 Corinthians 5:21; 1 Peter 2:22; 1 John 3:5).

2007-05-01 04:08:48 · answer #1 · answered by Freedom 7 · 0 0

Pastor Billy says: to the point the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception is in reference to Mary's birth.

As the Christian bible is a Catholic book, compiled by Catholics, the New Testment written by Christian practicing Catholics, affirmed as Holy Scripture by Catholic councils and so on, there is nothing in the bible which contradicts Catholic doctrine.

I would ask any so-called "bible believer" who isn't Catholic to provide biblical verse literally explaining Mary had committed sin.

To the individual taking scripture verse out of context with Romans 3:23 etc, do you understand where St. Paul is quoting from when he writes "all have sinned"? He quotes from the Old Testament psalms where we learn "all have sinned" really means all who have turned from God not everyone of all time as you imply.

Catholicism teaches Mary still required a savior but because God operates outside of time he preserves Mary from sin for the purpose of bring Jesus into the world. To give an example If sin is the pit God saves all of us from the pit and God saves Mary from ever falling into the pit.

Mary is understood in a very prophetic way, if Jesus is the Word, then Mary is the New Ark of the Word. In the Old Testament the ark of the covenant was as pure as the tablets housed within it. There are Old Testament examples of persons touching the ark and dying because of their lack of purity.

Catholic understanding of Mary is entirely biblical, historical, traditional and orthodox don't let others confuse you on this matter. finally as someone else has explained Catholics are not alone on see Mary as sinless, the Eastern Orthodox , Coptics, Armenians, and I believe even some higher church Protestants understand Mary to be sinless. With the Eastern Orthodox it is just a timing issue.

2007-04-30 22:49:05 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

As the others have pointed out about Mary that she is The Immaculate Conception. And that she did give virgin birth to Jesus. As for the birth control, why is it wrong? Well a lot of the birth control methods now days contain abortificants which is to say that it kills the embryo. Also birth control like condemns and such prevent life from occurring. The natural family planning method is used to space children, but to use it to keep from getting pregnant at all is wrong also.

2016-05-17 22:39:58 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

The Doctrine of Immaculate Conception is that Mary was conceived free of original sin in her own mother's womb. It has nothing to do with virginity.

The Catholic Church teaches that both Jesus and Mary were immaculately conceived but only Jesus was virgininally conceived.

Orthodox Christians do not believe Mary was immaculately conceived but when the Holy Spirit
descended on her all sin in her was removed.

2007-04-30 21:42:33 · answer #4 · answered by Shirley T 7 · 1 0

Yes it is Mary being the immaculate conception as the Catholics believe that no one with the stain of sin could possibly give birth to God. So to answer your question the immaculate conception wan't when Jesus was put into the womb, the immaculate conception is Mary.

2007-04-30 21:08:49 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

Mary wasn't sinless. Every human have sinned. Only Jesus hasn't sinned. Mary found favour in the eyes of God. Mary conceived by the Holy Spirit. That explains virgin birth.

2007-04-30 21:41:50 · answer #6 · answered by SG the best!!! 2 · 0 2

I am pretty sure that the catholics are the only Christians who believe Mary was sinless. In every other denomination of Christianity it means the conception of Jesus.

2007-04-30 21:34:02 · answer #7 · answered by freebubba 3 · 0 1

>>so i just want to know what it does actually mean.<<

This is what it means:

"The most Blessed Virgin Mary was, from the first moment of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of almighty God and by virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, Savior of the human race, preserved immune from all stain of original sin." -- Catechism of the Catholic Church, #491
http://www.vatican.va/archive/catechism/p122a3p2.htm

grlshadow wrote, "If Mary was sinless, she would not have died because people die because they sin."

So do you believe that Jesus didn't really die on the cross, or do you believe he sinned?

2007-04-30 21:10:00 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

it does not refer to the conception of jesus that is a somewhat popular misconception for the term. it is as the dictionary describes it. some sites you may find useful for this and other questions you may have are

www.scripturecatholic.com
www.newadvent.org
www.catholiceducation.org
www.fisheaters.com
www.ewtn.com
www.salvationhistory.com

hope these help and god bless.

2007-04-30 21:28:56 · answer #9 · answered by fenian1916 5 · 3 0

It means that Mary according to Catholic doctrine was born of woman by an earthly father but absolutely free of sin.

2007-04-30 21:06:36 · answer #10 · answered by s. grant 4 · 3 3

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